PALM 820 · Mechanisms of Human Disease · MS2

Pathology

Lecture notes and self-test

One section per lecture, built from the slide content. Practice questions pool in a single mixed bank at the end, so nothing reveals which lecture a question came from.

Lecture 01 · Randall

Anemias of Diminished Production

Microcytic · Macrocytic · Normocytic

  1. Classify anemia by MCV, and read the marrow's response with the reticulocyte index
  2. Work the microcytic anemias apart using iron studies
  3. Separate folate from B12 deficiency in macrocytic anemia
  4. Recognize the normocytic production failures — renal, aplastic, parvovirus, myelophthisic

Foundations

Two numbers organize the entire lecture

Background on the cell itself: RBCs are biconcave to maximize surface area for rapid gas exchange, live 120 days, are anucleate, and run on glucose. Anemia is decreased RBC mass, most commonly assessed by hemoglobin (RBC count and hematocrit also measure mass), and it arises from either diminished production or increased destruction. Fewer RBCs → less hemoglobin → less oxygen, giving fatigue, dyspnea, lightheadedness and angina from hypoxia, plus pale skin and mucous membranes from the low hemoglobin itself.

Reticulocyte index — is the marrow trying?

Corrected reticulocyte count RI = % reticulocytes × (actual Hct / normal Hct)
  • RI >3 = appropriate marrow response — the marrow is working, so suspect destruction or loss.
  • RI <2 = inadequate response — a production problem, which is this entire lecture.

The reticulocyte production index (RPI) is more accurate when the patient is severely anemic or the reticulocyte percentage is very high, because it corrects for the extra maturation time of reticulocytes released prematurely into blood.

MCV — average RBC size, in fL

The classification that drives the differential Microcytic <80 · Normocytic 80–100 · Macrocytic >100
Why the correction in RI matters

The raw reticulocyte percentage is a fraction of total RBCs. In anemia the denominator shrinks, so the percentage looks falsely reassuring. Multiplying by actual/normal Hct converts it back into an absolute measure of output — which is why it is called the corrected count.

Microcytic · framework

Microcytic anemias are hemoglobin-synthesis failures

MCV <80 fL, characterized by decreased Hb production and therefore hypochromasia — the cells are pale as well as small.

Build a hemoglobin, and you get the differential Hemoglobin = heme + globin chains · heme = iron + protoporphyrin

A shortfall in any of those components gives a microcytic anemia, which is exactly why the list looks the way it does:

  • Iron deficiency anemia — not enough iron (the classic)
  • Anemia of chronic disease, late — iron is present but unavailable
  • Sideroblastic anemias — protoporphyrin synthesis fails
  • Thalassemias — globin chains fail
Scope note

On her Key Points slide, thalassemia is greyed out, as are hemolytic anemias and hemoglobinopathies under normocytic. Randall lists them so the framework is complete, but they belong to Tayal's lectures — now covered in sections 02 and 03 below.

Microcytic · IDA

Iron deficiency anemia

The most common anemia, and iron is the most common nutritional deficiency. Beyond the typical signs of anemia, look for koilonychia (spoon nails) and pica. Plummer-Vinson syndrome is the named triad: iron deficiency anemia + esophageal webs (dysphagia) + atrophic glossitis (beefy red tongue).

Iron in vivo

Consumed as heme (meat) and non-heme (vegetable) forms; enterocytes absorb the heme form more readily. Absorbed in the duodenum and transferred into blood via ferroportin. Transferrin carries it through the blood to liver and marrow for storage, and stored intracellular iron is bound to ferritin, which also prevents free radical formation.

Causes

Chronic bleeding, malnutrition, absorption disorders, and increased demand (pregnancy, which raises TIBC).

  • Breast-fed infants and toddlers — human milk is low in iron
  • Menorrhagia or gastric ulcers; colon cancer or polyps
  • Gastrectomy or duodenectomy — stomach acid normally keeps iron in the reduced ferrous Fe2+ state, which is better absorbed than oxidized ferric Fe3+; lose the acid or the duodenum and you lose absorption
  • Hookworm infection

Stages, in order

Sequence matters, because it explains the labs Ferritin depleted first and TIBC rises serum iron depleted next and % saturation falls anemia appears, normocytic early progresses to microcytic, hypochromic

TIBC is a measure of transferrin molecules in the blood; % saturation is the percentage of transferrin molecules carrying iron.

Labs

Microcytic hypochromic anemia · RDW · ferritin · TIBC · serum iron · % saturation · free erythrocyte protoporphyrin.

Treatment: replete iron, typically oral ferrous sulfate.

Why ↑ RDW is an early clue

RDW measures variation in cell size. As iron runs out, newly made cells are small while the older normal-sized population is still circulating — so the width of the distribution rises before the MCV has fully fallen. A high RDW with a still-normal MCV is early IDA.

Microcytic · ACD

Anemia of chronic disease

Anemia arising in chronic inflammatory states — chronic infections, cancer, autoimmune disorders. It is the most common anemia in hospitalized patients.

Mechanism Inflammation ↑ hepcidin (an acute phase reactant) binds ferroportin on intestinal cells and macrophages, and suppresses EPO production

Because ferroportin is the only exit door for iron, blocking it traps iron inside enterocytes and macrophages. Absorption and recycling continue, but nothing reaches the blood — so serum iron falls while stored iron piles up. Anemia starts normocytic, normochromic and becomes microcytic with time.

Labs

ferritin · TIBC · serum iron · /– % saturation · free erythrocyte protoporphyrin.

Treatment: treat the underlying condition; can consider exogenous EPO.

The high-ferritin, low-iron paradox

These are two different pools. Serum iron is iron in transit, and it falls because the export door is shut. Ferritin is storage protein inside macrophages, and it rises because that is exactly where the iron is stranded. The marrow can only use what reaches it through the blood, so the patient is iron-rich but marrow-starved — functional iron deficiency with full stores. This one number, ferritin, is what separates ACD from true IDA.

One point where her slide is more direct than most sources

Her slide lists "suppresses erythropoietin (EPO) production" as one of hepcidin's actions. Many texts instead attribute the blunted EPO response to the inflammatory cytokines generally (IL-6 and others) rather than to hepcidin itself, with hepcidin handling only the iron-trapping arm. Answer her slide as written — but know that the two effects are often described separately, in case a differently worded question turns up.

Microcytic · sideroblastic

Sideroblastic anemias

Here the defect is in the protoporphyrin half of heme, so iron arrives normally and then has nowhere to go — which makes this the microcytic anemia with an iron overload profile.

Causes

  • Congenital: X-linked, mutation in ALA synthase (ALAS, the rate-limiting step)
  • Alcoholism — toxic effect on mitochondria
  • Lead poisoning — inhibits ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase
  • Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency — B6 is the cofactor for ALAS. A side effect of isoniazid, and treatable with B6
  • Myelodysplastic neoplasms/syndromes

Morphology

  • Ringed sideroblasts — iron-laden mitochondria visible in immature erythroid precursors, in the marrow
  • Basophilic stippling — in circulating red cells, from aggregates of damaged ribosomal RNA

Labs

Typically microcytic, though the alcoholism and MDS-related forms can be normocytic or macrocytic. ferritin · TIBC · serum iron · % saturation — all four together mark an iron overload state.

Where the enzymes sit

ALA synthase is the first, rate-limiting, mitochondrial step (succinyl CoA + glycine, with B6). ALA dehydratase is the next step, in cytoplasm. Ferrochelatase is the last step, inserting Fe2+ into protoporphyrin to make heme. Lead hits the first and last of the enzymes in that chain — which is the detail most often asked.

Macrocytic

Macrocytic anemias

MCV >100 fL. The most common cause is megaloblastic anemia from folate or B12 deficiency, both of which cause impaired DNA synthesis. Other causes: alcoholism, liver disease, some medications, myelodysplastic neoplasms, and congenital causes such as Diamond-Blackfan anemia.

Why "megaloblastic" produces the cells it does

Impaired DNA synthesis delays nuclear maturation relative to the cytoplasm. The cytoplasm keeps growing while the nucleus lags, so the cells come out too big and immature-looking:

  • In erythroid precursors → megaloblastic anemia
  • In granulocytic precursors → hypersegmented neutrophils

Folate deficiency

Causes: decreased dietary intake (green vegetables, some fruit) — and critically, body stores are minimal, so deficiency develops quickly, in weeks to months. Alcohol use disorder contributes through decreased dietary variety. Also increased demand (pregnancy, or high cell turnover as in cancer or hemolytic anemias), and folate-antagonist medications.

Labs: hypersegmented neutrophils · glossitis · serum folate · homocysteine, raising thrombosis risk · normal methylmalonic acid.

B12 deficiency

Dietary deficiency is less common than folate deficiency because hepatic stores are large — so it takes years, and vegans are the dietary exception. The most common cause is pernicious anemia: intrinsic factor, made by gastric parietal cells, is required for B12 absorption in the small bowel, and PA is autoimmune destruction of parietal cells → intrinsic factor deficiency. Other causes: pancreatic insufficiency, terminal ileum damage or loss (Crohn disease), and Diphyllobothrium latum, the fish tapeworm.

Findings: hypersegmented neutrophils · glossitis · homocysteine · methylmalonic acid · neurologic symptoms, because B12 is required for fatty acid and myelin metabolism — dorsal column and lateral corticospinal tract degeneration, giving decreased proprioception and vibration sense and spastic paresis respectively.

Why MMA is the discriminator

B12 has two jobs. As methyl-B12 it runs methionine synthase in the folate/methionine cycle — the step folate shares — so losing either vitamin raises homocysteine and impairs DNA synthesis. But as adenosyl-B12 it also runs methylmalonyl-CoA mutase in the mitochondrion, a pathway folate has nothing to do with. Lose B12 and methylmalonyl-CoA backs up as methylmalonic acid. That is the one branch folate cannot mimic, which is why MMA is normal in folate deficiency and elevated in B12 deficiency — and it is the same abnormal pathway implicated in the neurologic damage.

Highest-yield trap in the lecture

The hematologic pictures are identical — same macrocytosis, same hypersegmented neutrophils, same glossitis, same high homocysteine. Only two things separate them: MMA and neurologic symptoms, both present in B12 and absent in folate.

Normocytic

Normocytic anemias of diminished production

Normocytic anemias are classically split into hemolytic and non-hemolytic. Acute blood loss is a common normocytic cause, and early IDA and early ACD live here too before they turn microcytic. The production failures:

  • Renal failuredecreased EPO production
  • Aplastic anemia — see below
  • Parvovirus B19infects erythroid precursors and inhibits erythropoiesis. Especially important in patients with underlying marrow stress, such as sickle cell anemia or post-HSCT patients, where losing production for even a short time causes an abrupt crash
  • Myelophthisic processesreplacement of the marrow space by something else, usually metastatic cancer. Often pancytopenia, and the peripheral smear can show marrow elements not normally in blood: nucleated red blood cells and neutrophil precursors

Aplastic anemia

Damage to stem cells by medications, infections, or autoimmune/abnormal T-cell activity; some cases idiopathic. The marrow space is void of hematopoietic elements — replaced by fat — producing pancytopenia. Treatment: discontinue causative medications, supportive care, and HSCT in some cases.

Aplastic versus myelophthisic

Both give pancytopenia, and both are marrow-space problems — but the marrow looks opposite. Aplastic marrow is empty, and the smear is unremarkable apart from low counts. Myelophthisic marrow is crowded out by something, and the smear shows nucleated RBCs and immature granulocytes squeezed into circulation. That smear finding is the discriminator.

Why parvovirus matters more in sickle cell

A normal RBC lives 120 days, so shutting down production for a week or two barely dents the hemoglobin. In sickle cell disease, red cells survive only days, and the patient depends on continuously high output to stay compensated. Remove production and the hemoglobin falls almost immediately — an aplastic crisis.

Key points

The three tables to have memorized

Iron studies

FerritinTIBCSerum iron% saturation
IDA
ACD↓ / –
Sideroblastic
Pregnancy

Read it as two questions. Ferritin splits IDA (low stores) from everything else (adequate or high stores). Then serum iron and % saturation split ACD (iron trapped, so low) from sideroblastic (iron unusable, so it accumulates — high).

Folate versus B12

Folate deficiencyB12 deficiency
Most common causePoor dietary intake (low body stores)Pernicious anemia — vegans are the dietary exception
Homocysteine
Methylmalonic acidNormal
Neurologic symptomsNoYes

The MCV map

Microcytic <80Normocytic 80–100Macrocytic >100
Iron deficiency anemia
Anemia of chronic disease
Sideroblastic anemias
  lead poisoning
  vitamin B6 deficiency
Thalassemia
Acute blood loss
IDA (early)
ACD (early)
Aplastic anemia
  Parvovirus
Myelophthisic process
Hemolytic anemias
Hemoglobinopathies
Megaloblastic anemia
  folate deficiency
  B12 deficiency
Alcohol, meds, MDS

Grey entries are listed for completeness but belong to another lecture.

Highest yield

Six things to carry out of this lecture

  1. RI <2 means the marrow is the problem; RI >3 means destruction or loss. That single number decides which half of anemia you are in.
  2. Ferritin separates IDA from ACD. Both have low serum iron; only IDA has low ferritin and high TIBC.
  3. Sideroblastic anemia is the microcytic anemia with iron overload — high ferritin, high serum iron, high % saturation — because the block is in protoporphyrin, not iron.
  4. Lead inhibits ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase; B6 is the cofactor for ALA synthase (so isoniazid can cause it, and B6 treats it). Look for basophilic stippling on smear and ringed sideroblasts in marrow.
  5. MMA and neurologic findings are the only things separating B12 from folate. Both raise homocysteine; only B12 raises MMA and hits the dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts.
  6. Pancytopenia: empty marrow is aplastic, crowded marrow is myelophthisic — and nucleated RBCs with granulocyte precursors on the smear point to the latter.

Lecture 02 · Tayal

Hemolytic Anemias, Part 1

Definitions · Lab detection · Hereditary causes

  1. Normal red blood cell functions — and how each one predicts a way the cell can fail
  2. Hemolysis: definitions, classifications, and laboratory detection
  3. Hereditary hemolytic anemias — membrane, enzyme, and hemoglobin defects

Form follows function

What the normal red cell has to do

The core job is to enclose and transport hemoglobin — delivering O2 to tissues and carrying CO2 to the lungs. Enclosure matters on its own, because free hemoglobin is relatively toxic, particularly to the kidneys. Secondary roles: maintaining extracellular pH and electrolyte balance, delivering toxic compounds to liver and kidney, transporting hormones, and participating in immune responses.

The cell is deliberately simple — no nucleus, no mitochondria, no lysosomes, little enzyme activity. Energy comes from breaking glucose down to lactate or pyruvate through the glycolytic (Embden-Meyerhof) pathway, and that ATP is what maintains membrane integrity. ATP-depleted red cells are more susceptible to hemolysis.

Four design requirements

  • Volume — enclose the maximum amount of oxygen-binding hemoglobin
  • Shape — the biconcave disc is a compromise between storage volume and surface area for gas exchange
  • Deformability — to traverse small tortuous routes and heart valves, then recover shape
  • Durability — to survive 120 days
Why this list is the whole lecture in miniature

Each requirement maps onto a disease. Lose deformability and the spleen destroys you — hereditary spherocytosis. Lose enzyme capacity and oxidants destroy you — G6PD deficiency. Make an abnormal hemoglobin and polymerization destroys you — sickle cell. Make too little hemoglobin and unpaired chains destroy you — thalassemia. The cell has no nucleus and no mitochondria, so it cannot repair or adapt; whatever it was built with is all it gets for 120 days.

Where red cells come from, and the transfusion aside

Erythropoiesis is driven by EPO, moving through yolk sac (aorta-gonad-mesonephros) → liver and spleen → bone marrow. Under stress, extramedullary hematopoiesis can restart in spleen, liver, and lymph nodes. Transfused units are stored in glucose solutions, refrigerated, for up to 42 days — and undergo some hemolysis with storage as ATP is depleted, which is the same ATP-membrane link again.

Hemoglobin, briefly

2 pairs of globins (2 alpha, 2 beta in adults) plus 4 heme groups, each one atom of ferrous (2+) iron held by a porphyrin ring. Oxyhemoglobin is one ferrous iron plus one O2. Two terms to keep separate: a hemoglobinopathy is a mutation producing an abnormal globin (sickle cell), while a thalassemia is a mutation producing decreased synthesis of a normal globin.

Classifying hemolysis

Hemolysis and its three axes

Definition: destruction of red cells resulting in release of hemoglobin. Note what is not in that definition — anemia. Hemolysis may or may not cause anemia: if increased marrow production keeps up with the loss, it is compensated.

  • Rapid (acute) versus slow (chronic) — chronic hemolysis is easier to tolerate, because the marrow has time to compensate
  • Hereditary (intrinsic defects) versus acquired (antibodies)
  • Intravascular versus extravascular

Intravascular versus extravascular

ExtravascularIntravascular
FrequencyThe usual patternLess common
MechanismRBCs rendered less deformable, unable to pass splenic sinusoids, sequestered and phagocytosedMechanical or toxic injury; antibody/antigen reactions fixing complement (e.g. ABO-incompatible transfusion)
ResultAnemia, splenomegaly, jaundiceFree hemoglobin in plasma and urine
Her explicit instruction on this slide

Recognize mechanisms and examples, but do not try to classify every disorder into 1 of these categories.” Most processes have components of both. Learn the mechanism and the representative example; don't build a rigid two-column list and then fight over where PNH or G6PD belongs.

Immune versus non-immune

ImmuneNon-immune
Alloimmune (RBC alloantibodies)
  blood transfusion reaction
  hemolytic disease of the newborn

Autoimmune (RBC autoantibodies)
  warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
  cold agglutinin syndrome
  paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
  drug-related
Hereditary
  membrane defects — hereditary spherocytosis
  enzyme defects — G6PD, pyruvate kinase deficiency
  hemoglobinopathies — sickle cell disease
  thalassemias

Acquired
  paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (clonal)
  microangiopathic hemolysis
  mechanical (trauma)

The mnemonic split worth holding: allo = an antibody against a foreign antigen; auto = an antibody against your own antigens.

Laboratory detection

Proving hemolysis, then localizing it

Present in any hemolysis

  • Decreased hemoglobin / hematocrit
  • Increased reticulocyte count, with polychromasia on the smear — the marrow responding appropriately
  • Unconjugated (indirect) hyperbilirubinemia — heme is being catabolized faster than the liver conjugates it to glucuronide
  • Increased LDH

Added when hemolysis is intravascular

  • Decreased plasma haptoglobin — it binds free hemoglobin released from RBCs, and is consumed doing so
  • Increased free hemoglobinhemoglobinemia and hemoglobinuria
Why haptoglobin is the better localizer than LDH

LDH is cytoplasmic and abundant in red cells, so any destruction releases some — it proves turnover but not location. Haptoglobin depends on hemoglobin being free in plasma. In extravascular hemolysis the contents are degraded inside a macrophage, so haptoglobin is only modestly consumed; in intravascular hemolysis the cell lyses directly into blood and haptoglobin is exhausted. Same reasoning for hemoglobinuria, which requires free plasma hemoglobin to exceed haptoglobin's binding capacity.

The marrow side of the picture: erythroid hyperplasia, with increased erythroid precursors stimulated by EPO. Normoblasts are nucleated RBCs.

Infections that hemolyze red cells directly

  • Babesia species (e.g. B. microti) — dangerous in asplenic patients
  • Plasmodium species — especially falciparum malaria
  • Clostridium welchii — produces a hemolysin

Membrane defects

Hereditary spherocytosis

Red cells are fragile and less deformable, get trapped in the spleen, and survive only 10–20 days instead of 120. It is the common inherited anemia in northern Europeans (1 in 5,000), usually autosomal dominant (75%), with heterogeneous molecular defects.

The four-step membrane failure Normal membrane with vertical and horizontal skeletal proteins abnormal proteins weaken the membrane membrane and lipid bilayer are lost, forming a spherocyte the less deformable cell is trapped in the splenic cords

Molecular defects

  • Many defects are private — confined to a single family
  • Reading frame shifts and introduction of stop codons are the most common mutation types
  • Defects in ankyrin, spectrin, and band 4.2; ankyrin is most common
  • Protein electrophoresis shows reduced spectrin and reduced ankyrin

The CBC, and why the indices look the way they do

From her worked example: MCV 82.6 (normal), MCHC 36.5 high, RDW 16.5 high.

  • MCV: low to normal range — not frankly microcytic
  • MCHC increased from relative cell dehydration — the cell loses K+ and water, so the same amount of hemoglobin sits in a smaller volume
The index that actually flags HS

Reach for MCHC, not MCV. MCHC is a ratio, so the modest volume loss from dehydration moves it detectably above range. MCV is an absolute value with a wide 80–100 normal range, so the same volume loss usually leaves it inside that range — which is why HS is classified normocytic even though spherocytes look small and dense on a smear. Your eye reads shape and lost central pallor; the analyzer reads volume. ↑MCHC with ↑RDW is the pair.

Diagnosis and treatment

  • Spherocytes on smear — they lack central pallor, and are seen in HS and WAHA, so the finding alone does not establish a hereditary cause
  • Osmotic fragility test: incubate RBCs in NaCl solutions of decreasing concentration. Spherocytes are more sensitive to osmotic lysis and lyse sooner than normal RBCs — because a sphere has no spare membrane to expand into as water enters
  • Splenectomy is often helpful, increasing the lifespan of the abnormal RBCs. Afterward, expect Howell-Jolly bodies (remnants of DNA) on the smear, since no spleen remains to pit them out

Membrane defects, continued

Hereditary elliptocytosis and pyropoikilocytosis

  • Hereditary elliptocytosis — most commonly mutations in α-spectrin genes (SPTA1, SPTB), autosomal dominant, common in equatorial Africa because it confers resistance to malaria. Critically, the majority of patients are NOT anemic — elliptocytes are an incidental smear finding, and treatment is not necessary, since HE is uncommonly associated with hemolysis.
  • Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis — the severe form of HE, autosomal recessive, and it does cause hemolysis and anemia.
Why the inheritance pattern tracks severity here

The same principle recurs across these disorders: a dominant defect leaves one functioning allele, so enough normal protein is made to keep cells usable — abnormal shape, no meaningful hemolysis. A recessive defect knocks out both alleles, so the membrane skeleton genuinely fails. That is why AD elliptocytosis is an incidental finding while AR pyropoikilocytosis is a disease.

Enzyme defects

G6PD deficiency

An enzyme deficiency that renders the red cell vulnerable to oxidative injury. X-linked recessive, so clinically it appears in males. The abnormal G6PD protein misfolds and is degraded, which is why the deficiency worsens as cells age. Clinically relevant variants: G6PD A− in the African American population and G6PD Mediterranean in the Middle East. Like elliptocytosis, it may protect against Plasmodium falciparum.

Mechanism, in one line ↓ G6PD activity ↓ NADPH less conversion of oxidized to reduced glutathione cannot remove H2O2 denatured hemoglobin forms membrane-bound precipitates (Heinz bodies) membrane damage extravascular or intravascular hemolysis

Removal of H2O2 requires reduced glutathione and glutathione peroxidase, and the hexose monophosphate shunt is the red cell's only source of NADPH to regenerate that glutathione — hence a single enzyme gap collapses the whole antioxidant defense.

Triggers — hemolysis is intermittent and acute, not chronic

  • Drugs: antimalarials (primaquine, chloroquine), sulfonamides, nitrofurantoins
  • Foods: fava beans — “favism”
  • Viral and bacterial infections — free radicals generated by WBCs

Smear after oxidant exposure

  • Heinz bodies — precipitates of denatured globin, requiring supravital staining to see
  • Bite cellssplenic macrophages pick out these inclusions, taking a bite of membrane with them

Treatment is preventive: prevent exposure to oxidants. There is nothing to replace.

Timing is the diagnostic clue

G6PD deficiency is episodic. Between exposures the patient is hematologically normal, and enzyme assays can even be falsely normal right after an attack, because the oldest, most deficient cells have already lysed and the surviving reticulocytes have higher activity. A normal-looking patient with an abrupt hemolytic episode days after starting a sulfa drug or eating fava beans is the classic presentation.

Hemoglobinopathy

Sickle cell disease

A hereditary hemoglobinopathy from production of an abnormal hemoglobin, and it is common — 8% of African Americans carry the sickle cell mutation.

The mutation, precisely Point mutation in the 6th codon of the β-globin gene glutamate (glutamic acid) replaced by valine
  • Sickle cell DISEASE = homozygous; sickle cell TRAIT = heterozygous
  • Other β-globin chain disorders include HbC and HbE
  • HbS = α2βS2 = α2β2Glu→Val. The change in protein charge alters electrophoretic mobility, which is what makes hemoglobin electrophoresis diagnostic — SS = disease, AS = trait, AA = normal

Pathophysiology — a self-amplifying cycle

From her figure Deoxygenation HbS polymerizes to insoluble hemoglobin cell sickles, loses K+ and H2O and gains Ca2+ dehydration and membrane damage further cycles of deoxygenation, prolonged transit times irreversibly sickled cells → hemolysis, and microvascular occlusion
Why the cycle accelerates itself

Sickling drives out potassium and water, so the cell dehydrates — raising its MCHC. A higher intracellular hemoglobin concentration makes polymerization more likely on the next deoxygenation. So each sickling event makes the next one easier, until the damage is permanent. This is exactly why one of her treatment goals is to avoid dehydration, which decreases MCHC, and why slow transit through the microvasculature is so dangerous — more time deoxygenated means more polymer.

Diagnosis

  • Clinical presentation and family history
  • Blood smear: DISEASE shows sickle cells; TRAIT shows normal-appearing red cells. Also polychromatic RBCs, target cells, anisocytosis (variation in size), poikilocytosis (variation in shape), and Howell-Jolly bodies with irreversibly sickled cells
  • Sickling test — mix blood with an O2-consuming reagent to promote sickling
  • Hemoglobin electrophoresis or HPLC; DNA testing for prenatal diagnosis; newborn screening in all states

The spleen, in two stages

  • Splenic sequestration crisis — a potentially life-threatening complication: sudden enlargement of the spleen from trapping of RBCs, with a rapid drop in Hb/Hct, hypovolemia and circulatory collapse. The spleen is congested and sinuses dilated with RBCs
  • Autoinfarction / autosplenectomy — the spleen becomes small, shrunken, fibrotic, non-functional, leaving the patient susceptible to encapsulated organisms: pneumococci and Haemophilus influenzae

Cerebral infarction is monitored by transcranial Doppler measurement of cerebral blood flow, with a treatment goal of reducing HbS below 30% by transfusion.

Treatment — every goal reduces sickling

GoalHow
Increase HbFHydroxyurea; newborns are naturally protected by high HbF
Reduce HbS %Periodic transfusion to keep HbS <30%; exchange transfusion for severe crises
Reduce HbS per cellAvoid dehydration, which decreases MCHC
OtherReduce inflammation (decrease WBC); maintain intracellular pH, since acidosis promotes sickling

HbF works because it contains no β chains at all, so it cannot participate in HbS polymer — it dilutes the polymerizing species rather than blocking it.

Shared complications

What chronic hemolysis costs, regardless of cause

These apply across hemolytic diseases, HS and SCD included:

  • Marrow expansion — to keep up with RBC demand
  • Iron overload — especially in chronically transfused patients; oral iron chelators are used in sickle cell disease and severe thalassemia
  • Gallstonesbilirubin (pigment) stones, from the chronic unconjugated bilirubin load
  • Aplastic crisis — from viral infection, specifically Parvovirus B19 (fifth disease), causing a rapid and life-threatening drop in Hb/Hct. Marrow shows giant pronormoblasts and pure red cell aplasia
Why parvovirus is catastrophic here but trivial in a normal host

Parvovirus B19 infects erythroid precursors and shuts down erythropoiesis for a week or two. With a 120-day red cell lifespan, a normal person barely registers it. In HS the cells last 10–20 days, and in SCD not much longer — those patients are only compensated because the marrow is running at maximum output continuously. Remove production from a system with short cell survival and the hemoglobin falls almost immediately. Short lifespan is the vulnerability.

Lecture 03 · Tayal

Hemolytic Anemias, Part 2

Thalassemias · PNH · Immune · Microangiopathic

  1. Hereditary hemolytic anemias, continued — the thalassemia syndromes
  2. Acquired hemolytic disorders — PNH, immune-mediated, microangiopathic, and mechanical

Thalassemia · framework

Thalassemia syndromes

Heterogeneous genetic disorders resulting in decreased synthesis of adult hemoglobin (HbA, α2β2) — either the α chains (α-thal) or the β chains (β-thal). Two consequences follow, and both matter:

  • Hypochromia from reduced HbA — there simply isn't enough hemoglobin
  • Relative excess of unpaired globin chains can harm RBCs — and this is the arm that actually drives the disease severity

Gene dosage explains why the two behave differently: a pair of α-globin genes on chromosome 16 gives 4 genes total, while a single β-globin gene on chromosome 11 gives 2 genes total.

Laboratory testing — alpha and beta alike

  • RBC count increased — “lots of small cells”
  • MCV decreasedthink thalassemia if MCV <67 fL
  • MCH and MCHC decreased
  • Normal RDW
  • Smear: hypochromic microcytic RBCs and target cells
  • Electrophoresis: increased HbA2 in β-thal trait and β-thal intermedia, but NOT in α-thal
Highest-yield discriminator: thalassemia versus iron deficiency

Both are microcytic and hypochromic, and this is the classic confusion. Two numbers separate them cleanly:

RDW. Thalassemia gives a normal RDW, because every cell is uniformly small — the genetic defect is present in all of them from the start. IDA gives a high RDW, because normal cells made before the iron ran out still circulate alongside the new small ones.

RBC count. Increased in thalassemia — the marrow makes plenty of cells, they're just underfilled. Decreased in IDA. And an MCV below 67 is lower than iron deficiency usually goes. Her β-thal minor slide makes the practical point directly: exclude iron deficiency.

Thalassemia · beta

β-thalassemias

Molecular basis: mutations — usually point mutations, in contrast to the deletions of α-thal — that decrease β-globin synthesis.

Genotypeβ-globin outputMost common mutation typeWhy
β0 “zero”NoneChain terminator mutationsA premature stop codon (nonsense or frameshift) halts translation; the truncated globin is degraded. All-or-nothing mutation, all-or-nothing output
β+ “plus”ReducedSplicing mutationsSplicing is competitive — a weakened or alternative splice site is used most of the time, but the correct site is still used some of the time, so a minority of normal mRNA survives

Clinical severity is heterogeneous, and it tracks the amount of β chain made: cells are hypochromic and microcytic with reduced O2 carrying capacity, and free α chains precipitate, causing RBC membrane damage and extravascular hemolysis.

Pathogenesis of β-thalassemia major (Cooley's anemia)

Two destructive arms from one defect Reduced β-globin synthesis with relative excess of α-globin insoluble α-globin aggregates in the erythroblast [1] ineffective erythropoiesis — most erythroblasts die in the bone marrow  ·  [2] the few abnormal cells that do leave are hypochromic and aggregate-containing, and undergo extravascular hemolysis in the spleen

Both arms converge on anemia, which then branches again:

  • Anemia tissue hypoxia ↑ erythropoietin marrow expansion skeletal deformities — classically a skull radiograph with new bone formation on the outer table producing perpendicular radiations, the “crewcut” appearance
  • Ineffective erythropoiesis increased dietary iron absorption iron deposits in heart, liver, pancreas systemic iron overload (secondary hemochromatosis), demonstrated on a liver Prussian blue iron stain. Iron chelation therapy minimizes it
  • Blood transfusions reduce the anemia and therefore the marrow drive — but add their own iron burden
Why iron overload happens even without transfusion

This is the part worth understanding rather than memorizing. Ineffective erythropoiesis means the marrow is churning through precursors that die in place. That futile erythroid activity signals for more iron, so absorption is upregulated even though the patient's problem was never iron. Transfusions then add more. So a thalassemic patient ends up iron-overloaded from two independent directions — and unlike the anemia, the iron has no exit route, which is why chelation is a standing requirement.

Clinical spectrum

GenotypeClinical picture
Thalassemia major
(Cooley's)
Homozygous for the β-thal genesSevere anemia and the full pathophysiologic cascade above
Thalassemia intermediaHomozygous β+, plus various mildly behaving genotypesMild clinical anemia; may require transfusion later in life
Thalassemia minorHeterozygous β+ or β0Silent carriers or minimal effects. Borderline anemia (Hct ~35%) with microcytosis (MCV ~60 fL), a high RBC count, and increased HbA2 (4–8%). Smear: microcytic, hypochromic, target cells

Thalassemia · alpha

α-thalassemias

Reduced or absent α-globin chains, most commonly due to gene deletions — the key contrast with β-thal's point mutations. Because there are four α genes, severity is graded by how many are affected.

ConditionGenes deletedCharacteristics
Silent carrier1 (aa/a–)Clinically and hematologically normal
Thalassemia trait2 (–a/–a or ––/aa)Microcytosis, hypochromia, mild anemia
HbH disease3 (––/–a) — tetramers of excess β globinModerate to severe microcytic hypochromic hemolytic anemia, mild jaundice, moderate hepatosplenomegaly
Hb Bart hydrops fetalis syndrome4 (––/––) — tetramers of excess γ globin with high O2 affinitySevere anemia, generalized edema, ascites, marked hepatosplenomegaly, skeletal and cardiovascular malformations, usually death in utero
Why the tetramer identity changes with gene count

Without α chains, whatever non-α chain is most abundant pairs with itself. After birth that is β, giving β4 = HbH. In the fetus it is γ, giving γ4 = Hb Bart. And Hb Bart's high oxygen affinity is what makes it lethal — it binds oxygen and won't release it to tissues, so the fetus is hypoxic despite having hemoglobin. That is the mechanism behind hydrops: severe fetal anemia and hypoxia → high-output cardiac failure → total body edema.

Hemoglobin electrophoresis summary

HbA1 (α2β2)HbA2 (α2δ2)HbF (α2γ2)Other
Normal96–98.5%1.5–4%0–1%
β-thal minor / trait>85%3.5–8%1–7%
β-thal intermedia20–60%5–10%30–70%
β-thal major10–30%Trace70–90%
α-thal (HbH disease)β4 tetramers
α-thal (hydrops fetalis)γ4 tetramers

Note the one apparent oddity: HbA2 is trace in β-thal major but elevated in minor. HbA2 needs α chains too, and in major the massive HbF production dominates the percentages.

Acquired · clonal

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A rare acquired hematopoietic stem cell disease — a clonal disorder from somatic mutations affecting the RBC membrane. The specific defect is in the phosphatidylinositol glycan class A (PIG-A) gene, which is required to form the red cell anchor. The result: cells are more sensitive to complement-mediated lysis.

Pathogenesis PIGA mutated the GPI anchor is not formed proteins requiring that anchor cannot attach to the cell — CD14, CD16, CD24, CD55, CD56, CD58, CD59, acetylcholinesterase, blood antigens and others

The two that matter functionally: CD55 (decay accelerating factor) and CD59 (membrane inhibitor of reactive lysis, which inhibits C3 convertase). Both are complement brakes, so losing them leaves the cell defenseless against ongoing low-level complement activation.

Clinical triad

  • Chronic hemolytic anemia
  • Thrombosis — the most common cause of mortality
  • Pancytopenia — bone marrow failure

Diagnosis

  • Flow cytometry is the modern test: both RBCs and granulocytes normally express GPI-anchored proteins, and PNH cells show abnormal or absent CD55 and CD59. Alternatively, FLAER (fluorescent aerolysin), which binds the glycan portion of the GPI anchor itself rather than using antibodies
  • Historical tests — both work by making complement attack easier, and both are less specific than flow: the acidified serum (Ham) test, 1939, where acidified serum activates the alternative complement pathway (can be positive in congenital dyserythropoietic anemia), and the sucrose hemolysis test, 1970, where 10% sucrose provides low ionic strength promoting complement binding (can be positive in megaloblastic anemia and AIHA)

Marrow shows erythroid hyperplasia with numerous erythroid precursors. Treatment: marrow transplant, or anti-complement (C5) antibody — eculizumab — to reduce hemolysis. Median survival 10 years.

Note what PNH is not

Despite being a membrane defect causing hemolysis, PNH is acquired and clonal, not hereditary — it sits with the acquired disorders alongside microangiopathic and mechanical hemolysis. And the hemolysis is complement-mediated but not antibody-mediated, so the DAT is negative — it is a non-immune disorder despite involving complement.

Acquired · immune

Immune hemolytic anemias

The unifying mechanism: red cells coated with antibody and/or complement are removed from the circulation, in the spleen.

TypeAntibodyTemperatureSettings
Warm antibody typeIgG37°CPrimary (idiopathic), or secondary to autoimmune disease (SLE), drugs, lymphoma
Cold agglutinin typeIgM<37°CAcute (mycoplasma, infectious mononucleosis) or chronic (idiopathic, lymphoma)
Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuriaIgG<37°CRare; biphasic hemolysis

The Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT / Coombs)

Principle: detect antibody (IgG) and/or complement (C3) on the RBC surface by adding anti-human antibody and looking for agglutination. Its job is to distinguish immune from non-immune anemias — anemia plus a positive DAT points to an immune hemolytic anemia.

Why the DAT is the single most useful test in this section

Several disorders here produce spherocytes, and several produce hemolysis with no distinguishing morphology at all. The DAT cuts across all of it by asking one question: is there antibody or complement stuck to the cell? Positive with IgG → warm. Positive with complement only → cold agglutinin. Negative with spherocytes → hereditary spherocytosis, not WAHA. Negative with hemolysis and pancytopenia → think PNH.

Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAHA)

Defined as hemolytic anemia plus an RBC autoantibody, usually idiopathic.

  • Positive Coombs test
  • Spherocytes in peripheral blood — her slide calls them “microspherocytes”
  • The autoantibodies react with a wide range of self-antigens, so they destroy both the patient's own cells and any cells that are transfused — which is what makes transfusion support difficult
  • Treatment: corticosteroids (prednisone), rituximab (anti-CD20 B cell antibody), splenectomy

Spherocytes form here for the same mechanical reason as in HS: splenic macrophages remove part of the antibody-coated membrane, and the cell rounds up. Same shape, different cause — and the DAT is what separates them.

Cold agglutinin syndrome (CAS)

  • May cause a chronic autoimmune hemolytic anemia
  • Thermal amplitude of the antibody determines severity — symptoms appear in fingers, toes, and cold-exposed areas, where blood is coolest
  • Usually IgM, often directed against I or i antigens. The DAT detects complement on the RBCs — not IgG, because IgM elutes as blood rewarms while the complement it deposited stays behind
  • Infection-associated: Mycoplasma pneumoniae, infectious mononucleosis (EBV), CMV, influenza, HIV — this form is usually self-limited
  • Older adults with monoclonal gammopathies — plasma cell myeloma, lymphomas
Agglutinates versus rouleaux

Both look like red cells sticking together, and they mean different things. Red cell agglutinates are clumps from antigen/antibody reactions — cold agglutinin syndrome. Rouleaux are stacked-coin arrangements from increased monoclonal proteins (paraproteins) — plasma cell myeloma. And note: in WAHA the cells are NOT stuck together, because IgG does not agglutinate efficiently at body temperature. So clumping on a smear points cold, not warm.

Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)

  • Rare autoimmune syndrome causing massive intravascular hemolysis on cold exposure
  • IgG autoantibody against the P antigen — historically associated with syphilis, and now typically following viral infection in children
  • Biphasic hemolysin — the Donath-Landsteiner antibody: antibody and early complement components bind at low temperature, then terminal complement components form on warming and the cells lyse intravascularly
  • Donath-Landsteiner test: patient serum plus normal (P-positive) RBCs and fresh serum as a complement source; antibody binds cold, complement lyses on warming — giving red serum in the tube (hemolysis) and cola-colored urine (hemoglobinuria)
  • Treatment: self-limited; avoid cold; corticosteroids are not helpful — a deliberate contrast with WAHA
Why “biphasic” explains everything about PCH

Two temperatures are required, and that is the whole disease. Binding happens in cold peripheral blood; lysis happens when that blood returns to the warm core. Because the lytic step completes inside the vessel rather than in a splenic macrophage, PCH is one of the few genuinely intravascular immune hemolytic anemias — hence hemoglobinuria, and hence why splenectomy and steroids don't help.

Drug-related hemolytic anemia — three mechanisms

MechanismHow it worksAntibodyDrugs
Hapten / drug adsorptionDrug binds to an RBC membrane protein; antibody forms against the drug-membrane complexIgGPenicillin, cephalosporins, tetracycline
Immune complex (ternary complex)Antibody forms on exposure; further exposure causes the drug-antibody complex to adsorb to RBCsIgMQuinidine, quinine, chlorpropamide
Autoantibody formationTrue autoantibodies form on exposure to the drug, like those in WAHA; may show apparent specificity for Rh antigensIgGα-methyldopa, cephalosporins

Treatment includes identifying and stopping the offending drug — and note her emphasis that drugs can cause severe intravascular hemolysis. The distinction that matters: in the hapten and ternary-complex mechanisms the antibody needs the drug present, so hemolysis stops when the drug is withdrawn; in the autoantibody mechanism a true self-directed antibody has been created, which can persist.

Acquired · mechanical

Microangiopathic and mechanical hemolysis

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA)

Red cells are damaged on contact with dense fibrin strands, producing schistocytes — red cell fragments. Causes:

  • Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
  • Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
  • Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

Mechanical hemolysis (RBC trauma)

  • Artificial heart valves — tilting valve, ball-and-cage valve
  • March hematuria — hematuria after repetitive impact on the body, classically the feet
Why these are intravascular and give schistocytes rather than spherocytes

The mechanism is shearing, not phagocytosis. A cell dragged across a fibrin strand or a valve is physically cut, so it fragments and spills its contents into the bloodstream — giving schistocytes on the smear plus the intravascular lab pattern of markedly elevated LDH, very low haptoglobin, and hemoglobinuria. Compare spherocytes, which are made by a macrophage nibbling membrane in the spleen — a partial, extravascular process. Fragmented cell → think shear; rounded cell → think spleen.

Highest yield

Eight things to carry out of the hemolysis lectures

  1. Hemolysis is proven by ↑retic, ↑indirect bilirubin and ↑LDH; it is localized by haptoglobin. Low haptoglobin plus hemoglobinuria means intravascular.
  2. HS: ↑MCHC from cell dehydration, ↑RDW, MCV low-to-normal. Spherocytes lack central pallor and appear in both HS and WAHA — the DAT separates them.
  3. G6PD is episodic and X-linked. ↓NADPH → ↓reduced glutathione → Heinz bodies → bite cells. Triggers: primaquine, sulfonamides, fava beans, infection. Treatment is avoidance.
  4. Sickle cell is a point mutation at the 6th codon of β-globin, glutamate → valine. Deoxygenation polymerizes HbS; dehydration raises MCHC and makes it worse. Goals: ↑HbF (hydroxyurea), ↓HbS to <30%, avoid dehydration and acidosis.
  5. Thalassemia versus IDA: normal RDW and an increased RBC count mean thalassemia, along with MCV <67. HbA2 is raised in β-thal trait but not in α-thal.
  6. Chain terminator → β0; splicing → β+. Free α chains drive ineffective erythropoiesis, which drives both the marrow expansion (crewcut skull) and the increased iron absorption behind secondary hemochromatosis.
  7. α-thal is graded by gene count: 3 genes deleted = HbH (β4), 4 genes = Hb Bart (γ4, high O2 affinity) and hydrops fetalis.
  8. PNH: PIGA mutation → no GPI anchor → no CD55/CD59 → complement lysis. Triad of hemolysis, thrombosis (leading cause of death), and pancytopenia. Diagnose by flow cytometry; treat with eculizumab.

Lecture 04 · Tayal

Bleeding Disorders, Part 1

Vessel wall · Thrombocytopenia · ITP · HIT · TTP / HUS

  1. Vascular abnormalities that cause bleeding without thrombocytopenia
  2. Quantitative platelet disorders — decreased production and decreased survival
  3. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), chronic adult versus acute childhood
  4. Drug-induced thrombocytopenia, with HIT as the model
  5. HIV-associated, pregnancy-associated, and neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia
  6. Thrombotic microangiopathies — TTP and HUS

Objective 1 · vessel wall

Vessel wall abnormalities associated with bleeding

These are the “non-thrombocytopenic purpuras” — the vessel itself is leaky or fragile, so the patient bleeds while every screening test comes back normal.

The recognition pattern Petechiae and purpura + normal platelet count + normal PT and aPTT

Bleeding is variable and usually mild. Causes fall into recognizable buckets:

  • Infections — meningococcemia, Rickettsia
  • Drug reactions — vasculitis
  • Collagen disorders — scurvy, Ehlers-Danlos
  • Henoch-Schönlein purpura — immune complexes
  • Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
  • Amyloid infiltration of blood vessels
Why the labs are normal

Hemostasis has three arms: the vessel, the platelet, and the clotting factors. Platelet count measures the second; PT and aPTT measure the third. Nothing in the routine panel tests the vessel wall. So a patient who bleeds with a completely clean coagulation workup should push you toward vascular disease, not toward a subtler factor problem.

Objective 2 · platelet basics

What platelets are, and what happens as the count falls

Platelets are small cell fragments derived from megakaryocytes, which expand and differentiate over several days in response to thrombopoietin (TPO). Their two jobs:

  • Provide the surface on which coagulation factors assemble — this is why platelets and the cascade are not really separable systems
  • Prevent bleeding
Her four-way framing — count and function both matter Too few → bleed (or clot, if the platelets are activated) · Too many → clot (or bleed, if the platelets don't work)

Platelet count and clinical consequence

Normal count is 150–450 K/µL.

Count (K/µL)What you see
50–100Nothing
30–50Bruising with minor trauma
10–30Spontaneous bruising, menorrhagia
<10Spontaneous bleeds — gums, gut, nosebleeds
Exam trap

A platelet count of 60,000 is asymptomatic. Do not attach bleeding to a number just because it is below the reference range — the threshold where spontaneous bleeding begins is roughly 10,000, and the therapeutic decisions in this lecture are built around that.

Objective 2 · non-immune causes

Splenic sequestration and dilutional thrombocytopenia

Splenic sequestration (splenomegaly)

Very common. The spleen enlarges from increased cells/tissue or vascular engorgement, and pools platelets out of the circulation. Associated with:

  • Infiltration by leukemia or lymphoma
  • Chronic liver disease
  • Congestive heart failure

Dilutional thrombocytopenia

Trauma and complicated surgery. Platelets are simply diluted by the saline, red cells, and plasma being infused. Treatment is to transfuse platelets if the count is low enough to affect hemostasis.

Why these are the ones to think of first

Neither involves platelet destruction or an antibody — the platelets are normal, just in the wrong place or outnumbered. That makes them the mechanically simplest explanations for a low count, and sequestration in particular is common enough that it belongs at the top of any differential.

Objective 3 · ITP

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura — adult chronic

An autoimmune disorder manifesting as immune-mediated thrombocytopenia. Autoantibodies (IgG) recognize one or more platelet surface glycoproteins — GPIIb-IIIa, GPIb-IX, others — and are detectable in 50–80% of patients.

Mechanism IgG coats platelet glycoprotein macrophage removal thrombocytopenia

She points at the analogy directly: this is the same situation as warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAHA), just with platelets as the target instead of red cells.

Clinical features

  • Most common cause of isolated thrombocytopenia in an otherwise healthy patient
  • Any age or sex, but typically young women under 40
  • Splenomegaly and intracerebral bleeds are NOT common
  • Signs track the count — petechiae (pinpoint hemorrhages) and ecchymoses (bruises)

Laboratory features

ITP is a diagnosis of exclusion.

  • CBC and smear: isolated thrombocytopenia with large platelets
  • PT and aPTT are normal — clotting factor activity is intact
  • No sensitive and specific test exists. Antiplatelet-antibody assays exist but do not make the diagnosis
  • Check for HIV and hepatitis C — both cause thrombocytopenia
  • Marrow, when examined, shows increased megakaryocytes, and mainly serves to exclude infiltration, leukemia, lymphoma, and MDS
Why the platelets are large and the marrow is busy

The problem is peripheral destruction, not production. The marrow responds by ramping up — hence increased megakaryocytes — and the platelets it releases are young, and young platelets are large. Large platelets plus a hypercellular megakaryocyte compartment is the signature of a destructive thrombocytopenia; small platelets and an empty marrow would point to a production failure instead.

Objective 3 · treatment

Treating chronic ITP in adults

Options scale with severity, and they sort cleanly by mechanism:

StrategyAgentsWhat it does
ObservationAppropriate when the count is safe
Immune suppressionCorticosteroids (prednisone, dexamethasone); rituximab (anti-CD20, anti-B cell)Reduce autoantibody production
Fc receptor blockadeIVIG; anti-D (WinRho) if Rh(D) positiveSaturates Fc receptors in the reticuloendothelial system, so coated platelets survive longer
SplenectomyRemoves the site of destruction → increased platelet survival
Increase productionTPO receptor agonists — eltrombopag, romiplostimDrive megakaryocyte output
Highest-yield rule on this slide

There is no role for prophylactic platelet transfusion in ITP — even with ZERO platelets, in a non-bleeding patient. The reason is mechanistic: the autoantibody will coat and destroy transfused platelets exactly as fast as it destroys the patient's own. You are feeding the same machine. Transfusion is reserved for active, serious bleeding.

Acute immune thrombocytopenia in children

Clinically a different disease from the adult chronic form:

  • Abrupt onset, usually following a viral illness
  • Usually does NOT require steroids — observation
  • Spontaneous and permanent remission, in contrast with adults, who often have chronic disease with relapses

Objective 4 · HIT

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

A life-threatening complication of heparin exposure, and common1% to 5% of exposed patients. Caused by an antibody against a complex of heparin and platelet factor 4 (PF4).

The number that conveys the stakes ~1/3 of HIT patients develop thrombosis of those, 1/3 will be amputated or die

Pathophysiology — her four-step sequence

1 Heparin exposure → IgG antibodies against heparin-PF4 complexes
2 HIT antibody binds the platelet FcγRIIa receptorplatelet activation
3 Platelets release procoagulant microparticles that promote thrombosis — including THROMBIN
4 Thrombocytopenia as platelets are consumed and antibody-coated platelets are destroyed
Why HIT clots instead of bleeding

Every other cause of thrombocytopenia in this lecture drops the count by removing platelets. HIT drops it by activating them first. Activation is the whole point — step 2 comes before step 4. So the falling count is a marker of consumption, not a bleeding risk, and the clinical danger is thrombosis. This is why the count matters less than the timing and the thrombotic events.

Type I versus Type II HIT

Type I — non-immuneType II — immune
SeverityMild (100,000–150,000/mm3)Severe (<100,000/mm3)
OnsetRapid, 1–2 daysDelayed, 5–10 days
CourseResolves despite continuing heparinPersists until heparin is stopped
ThrombosisNOThromboembolic complications
MechanismNon-immuneImmune (heparin-PF4 IgG)

The “4 Ts” score

A clinical pretest probability score. Each of four features earns 2, 1, or 0 points:

4 Ts2 points1 point0 points
ThrombocytopeniaFall >50% and nadir >20Fall 30–50% or nadir 10–19Fall <30%
Timing of the fallOnset days 5–10, or fall <1 day with recent exposureConsistent with days 5–10 but unclear; onset after day 10Fall <4 days without recent exposure
Thrombosis or sequelaeNew thrombosis; skin necrosisProgressive or recurrent thrombosis; non-necrotic skin lesions; unproven thrombosisNone
oTher causesNone apparentPossibleDefinite

Laboratory testing — two categories

  • Immunoassays detect the antibody — they use antibodies to find the anti-heparin-PF4 antibodies in the patient's blood
  • Functional tests detect platelet activation — the serotonin release assay is the classic

Treatment

Three rules, all counterintuitive

1. Stop all heparin — drips and flushes. But this is NOT ENOUGH.

2. Start a non-heparin anticoagulant. Direct thrombin inhibitors (argatroban, bivalirudin) neutralize the excess thrombin already generated. Removing the trigger does not undo the thrombin burst that has already happened.

3. Avoid platelet transfusions — they may increase the risk of thrombosis. You would be adding substrate to an actively prothrombotic state.

Objective 4 · other drugs

Other drug-induced thrombocytopenias

  • Immune mechanism — antibodies react with platelet membrane glycoproteins only when the drug is present, leading to platelet removal. Quinine, quinidine, sulfonamide antibiotics.
  • Non-immune mechanism — marrow failure from a direct toxic effect on the bone marrow. Many drugs; the most common are chemotherapeutic agents.
Cross-reference worth making

Quinine and quinidine also appeared in the immune hemolytic anemia lecture as the ternary complex drugs. Same immunologic trick, different cell: the drug-dependent antibody needs the drug present to bind. If you have the mechanism for one, you have it for the other.

Objective 5 · HIV and pregnancy

HIV-associated and pregnancy-associated thrombocytopenia

HIV

Common in HIV disease, and multifactorial:

  • Decreased production — HIV infects megakaryocytes directly
  • HIV-associated ITP — increased destruction through immune-mediated thrombocytopenia, with GPIIb-IIIa autoantibodies
  • Responds to antiretroviral therapy — treat the virus and the count often recovers

Pregnancy

  • Gestational thrombocytopenia — incidental, mild, no specific cause, resolves after delivery
  • Other causes: severe preeclampsia / HELLP, DIC, thrombotic microangiopathies
  • ITP in pregnancy — roughly a 10-fold greater risk than the general population. Occurs in any trimester, severity varies, and counts change over the pregnancy. Transplacental passage of maternal autoantibody can cause fetal/neonatal thrombocytopenia in ~25%. Most pregnancies are uneventful.

Objective 5 · NAIT

Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (NAT)

Caused by platelet alloantibodies the mother develops against foreign fetal platelet antigens — the HPA-1a antibody is the classic.

Mechanism Mother HPA-1a negative fetal HPA-1a positive platelets maternal IgG crosses placenta binds fetal platelets
  • Detected in the lab by ELISA
  • The mother has a normal platelet count — the antibody is against an antigen she does not have
  • The FIRST child is often affectedcontrast Rh disease of the newborn, where it is the second pregnancy
  • May present as newborn bleeding or intracranial bleed
  • Treatment: IVIG ± corticosteroids, and platelet transfusion
  • Subsequent pregnancies are high-risk
The two discriminators tested here

Mother's platelet count. Normal in NAIT (allo-antibody, she has no HPA-1a to attack). Low in maternal ITP (auto-antibody attacks her platelets too). This single number separates the two causes of neonatal thrombocytopenia.

Which pregnancy. NAIT can hit the first; Rh disease needs a prior sensitizing pregnancy. Do not import the Rh timing into the platelet disease.

Objective 6 · TTP

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

A thrombotic microangiopathy — excessive platelet activation forming thrombi in small blood vessels. TTP is a medical EMERGENCY, and the defining paradox is that patients CLOT despite being thrombocytopenic.

Classic pentad Thrombocytopenia · MAHA · Renal dysfunction · Neurologic disturbances · Fever

Pathogenesis

The chain to know cold No ADAMTS13 ultra-large vWF multimers not cleaved platelet activation & aggregation in the microcirculation microthrombi RBC shearing + platelet consumption
  • ADAMTS13 is the metalloprotease that cleaves vWF. Without its activity, sticky ultra-large vWF multimers persist
  • Acquired TTP — an IgG autoantibody against ADAMTS13. This is the usual form
  • Rare inherited patients exist with a mutation that inactivates ADAMTS13

Laboratory findings

  • Thrombocytopenia — counts are variable
  • MAHA — anemia with schistocytes, reticulocytosis ± nucleated RBCs, increased LDH, unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
  • Renal dysfunction — usually only a mild creatinine rise
  • PT and aPTT are usually NORMAL unless DIC develops
  • ADAMTS13 activity assay

Schistocytes are RBC fragments formed when red cells come into contact with dense fibrin meshworks.

The single most testable contrast in this lecture

TTP: PT and aPTT NORMAL. DIC: both PROLONGED. Both give thrombocytopenia, schistocytes, and microvascular thrombi, so the smear will not separate them. The difference is what is being consumed. TTP consumes platelets on vWF strands; the clotting factors are untouched, so PT and aPTT stay normal. DIC activates the cascade itself and consumes factors and fibrinogen along with platelets, so PT and aPTT both rise and fibrinogen falls.

Treatment

Therapeutic plasma exchange (apheresis) — one procedure, two jobs Removes the autoantibody + provides ADAMTS13
  • Corticosteroids and rituximab (anti-CD20) — decrease autoantibody production
  • Caplacizumab — an anti-vWF immunoglobulin
  • Splenectomy — increases platelet survival
  • Platelet transfusion may be contraindicated

Drug-induced thrombotic microangiopathy is immune-mediated like TTP — quinine, ticlopidine, clopidogrel.

Why plasma exchange rather than plasma infusion

Infusing plasma would supply ADAMTS13 but leave the autoantibody in place to neutralize it. Exchange removes the patient's plasma — carrying away both the antibody and the accumulated ultra-large multimers — and replaces it with donor plasma containing functioning enzyme. It attacks the cause and the toxic product simultaneously, which is why it is the emergency intervention rather than an adjunct.

Objective 6 · HUS

Hemolytic uremic syndrome

“Typical” HUS

  • MAHA and thrombocytopenia — same microangiopathic picture as TTP
  • Prominent acute renal failure — this is the discriminator
  • Neurologic symptoms less common than in TTP
  • More frequent in children, who often recover
  • NORMAL levels of ADAMTS13
  • Most often from food contaminated with enterohemorrhagic E. coli producing Shiga-like toxins that disrupt endothelium → platelet activation
  • NOT treated by plasma exchange — no specific therapy

“Atypical” HUS (aHUS)

  • Non-infective cause of HUS
  • Inherited (mutations in complement component genes) or sporadic
  • Chronic and recurring, with >50% developing end-stage renal failure; early mortality 10–25%
  • Caused by excessive complement activation
  • Responds to complement inhibitors — eculizumab
Why the treatments diverge from TTP

All three are microangiopathies with schistocytes and low platelets, but the upstream lesion differs, and treatment follows the lesion. TTP — missing enzyme plus autoantibody → plasma exchange. Typical HUS — a toxin that has already injured endothelium and is gone → nothing to exchange away, hence supportive care only. aHUS — unregulated complementblock complement. Same smear, three different targets.

Cross-lecture connection

Eculizumab also treats PNH from Hemolytic Part 2 — and for the identical reason. PNH cells lack CD55 and CD59, so complement is unopposed; aHUS has too much complement activation. Both problems are solved by inhibiting complement.

Highest yield

Six things to carry out of this lecture

  1. Thrombocytopenia is either decreased production or decreased survival, and decreased survival happens by immune and non-immune mechanisms. Every disease in this lecture slots into that grid.
  2. Normal platelet count + normal PT/aPTT + purpura = vessel wall disease. Nothing in the routine panel tests the vessel.
  3. ITP is a diagnosis of exclusion — isolated thrombocytopenia, large platelets, increased marrow megakaryocytes, and no prophylactic platelet transfusion even at zero platelets.
  4. HIT clots. Antibody against heparin-PF4, onset days 5–10, platelets are activated before they are destroyed. Stopping heparin is not enough — add a direct thrombin inhibitor, and avoid platelet transfusion.
  5. NAIT: first pregnancy, normal maternal platelet count. Rh disease is the second pregnancy. That contrast is the exam question.
  6. TTP has normal PT and aPTT; DIC does not. TTP is ADAMTS13 deficiency treated by plasma exchange; typical HUS has normal ADAMTS13, prominent renal failure, and is not treated by exchange.

Lecture 05 · Tayal

Bleeding Disorders, Part 2

Platelet function · Vitamin K · vWD · Hemophilia · DIC

  1. Qualitative platelet disorders — acquired defects and hereditary function defects
  2. Clotting factor abnormalities — acquired (vitamin K, liver) and hereditary (vWD, hemophilia A & B)
  3. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

Approach

The hemostatic history, then the lab

She opens with the point that history is an important part of hemostatic evaluation, and the questions are targeted:

  • Personal or family history of bleeding?
  • Spontaneous bleeding, or bleeding only under hemostatic challenge — surgery, dental work, childbirth?
  • Medications, vitamins, health foods?
  • Type of bleed?
The single most useful historical discriminator Platelet problem → petechiae · Coagulation factor problem → hemarthrosis
Why the bleeding pattern maps to the defect

Platelets plug the tiny leaks in capillaries continuously. Lose them and you get diffuse, superficial, small-vessel bleeding — petechiae, mucosal ooze, epistaxis — appearing immediately. Clotting factors stabilize a platelet plug that has already formed. Lose them and the initial plug still forms, then fails later under pressure, so you bleed into deep spaces — joints and soft tissue — often with a delay. Hemarthrosis is a factor disease until proven otherwise.

Laboratory tests of hemostasis

  • Routine screening — platelet count, PT, aPTT, plus fibrinogen, D-dimer, thrombin time
  • Specialized — bleeding time, platelet function tests, vWF testing, factor assays (F8, F9, F11)

Objective 1 · acquired

Acquired platelet function defects — the platelets don't work

Drugs and vitamins — very common:

  • Cyclooxygenase inhibitors (aspirin and other NSAIDs) — inhibit thromboxane A2 production, and TxA2 stimulates platelets
  • P2Y12 receptor inhibitors (clopidogrel, ticlopidine) — the P2Y12 receptor binds ADP, which is crucial for platelet activation and aggregation

Other conditions affecting platelet function:

  • Uremia — multiple effects on platelet function
  • Cardiac surgery — platelet activation and destruction in the bypass circuit
Exam trap

A patient on aspirin bleeds with a completely normal platelet count, PT, and aPTT. Qualitative defects are invisible to every routine screening test — the count is normal because the platelets are all present, and PT/aPTT are normal because the factors are fine. You need a platelet function test to see it. This is exactly the same “normal panel with real bleeding” trap as vessel wall disease from Part 1.

Tests of platelet function

  • Bleeding time — standard incision, blot until bleeding stops. Difficult to perform, not reproducible, and NOT DONE ANYMORE
  • Automated platelet function analyzer — platelets exposed to agonists (collagen, epinephrine, ADP). Good at detecting antiplatelet medications, vWD, and inherited function disorders

Platelet agonists are substances that activate platelets: thrombin, TxA2, ADP, collagen, epinephrine, arachidonic acid, ristocetin. Historically tested by optical platelet aggregometry; today rapid assays can determine whether a patient is on an antiplatelet drug and whether it is working.

Objective 1 · hereditary

Hereditary platelet function defects

Two receptors, two diseases, and the receptor's job tells you which step fails:

The receptor map GPIIb-IIIa (αIIbβ3) = fibrinogen receptor → AGGREGATION · GP1b = vWF receptor → ADHESION

Deficiency of GPIIb-IIIa gives Glanzmann thrombasthenia; deficiency of GP1b gives Bernard-Soulier syndrome; deficiency of vWF itself gives von Willebrand disease — three defects along one pathway.

Glanzmann thrombastheniaBernard-Soulier syndrome
DefectGPIIb-IIIa (αIIbβ3) integrin — fibrinogen receptorGP1b complex — principal vWF receptor
Step that failsAggregation — platelets cannot bridge to each other via fibrinogenAdhesion to subendothelial matrix under high shear stress
InheritanceAutosomal recessive, carriers asymptomaticAutosomal recessive, most carriers asymptomatic
GenesITGA2B (αIIb), ITGB3 (β3)GP1BA, GP1BB
Platelet count / sizeNormalGIANT platelets with mild thrombocytopenia
AggregometryNo aggregation to ADP, collagen, epinephrineNo aggregation to ristocetin
NoteMost common inherited disorder of platelet function; lifelong mucosal bleeding that may need platelet transfusions
Why the aggregometry results differ

Ristocetin works by promoting vWF binding to GP1b — it tests the adhesion receptor specifically. ADP, collagen, and epinephrine all funnel into GPIIb-IIIa activation and cross-linking by fibrinogen — the aggregation step. So the agonist that fails identifies the receptor that is missing. Ristocetin failure → GP1b axis (Bernard-Soulier, or vWD). Failure to everything else → GPIIb-IIIa (Glanzmann).

Platelet granule disorders — “storage pool disease”

Rare disorders of platelet secretion, with variable reduction in the number and contents of:

  • Alpha granules (α-SPD) — store fibrinogen and vWF
  • Dense granules (δ-SPD) — store Ca2+, serotonin, ATP/ADP
  • Rarely both (αδ-SPD)

The granule contents needed for clot formation (fibrinogen, vWF) and for further platelet activation (ADP) are simply not available. Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome = albinism + δ-SPD, with impaired release of granule-bound ADP. Molecular mechanisms are not well understood, bleeding is variable, and electron microscopy can detect the decreased granules.

Objective 2 · cascade recap

The classic cascade, as she frames it for the lab

“Contact factor pathway”“Tissue factor pathway”
Estimated byaPTTPT (INR)
Elevated withHeparin; deficiency of F8, F9, F11Warfarin (Coumadin); deficiency of F7

Her caveat on the slide: this is only partly true in vivo. The two-pathway model is a description of the test tube, not of physiology — in a real vessel, tissue factor initiates and thrombin feeds back to amplify through F8 and F5.

Objective 2 · acquired

Vitamin K deficiency and liver disease

Vitamin K deficiency

  • Usually hospitalized patients
  • Cofactor for gamma-carboxylation of the vitamin K-dependent clotting proteins — 2, 7, 9, 10
  • Malnutrition and decreased gut flora are usually responsible
  • PT increases FIRST, because of the short half-life of factor 7
  • Treatment: vitamin K replacement, with response in 24–48 hours

Urgent Coumadin reversal in a bleeding patient:

  • Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) — contains ALL clotting factors
  • Prothrombin complex concentrates — contain the 4 vitamin K-dependent factors
Why PT moves before aPTT

All four vitamin K-dependent factors fall, but they do not fall at the same rate — a factor's level drops in proportion to how fast it clears, and F7 has the shortest half-life of the four. F7 is also the only one of them in the extrinsic limb, which is what PT reads. So the first abnormality is an isolated PT prolongation, and aPTT follows later as 9, 10, and 2 deplete. The same logic explains why PT/INR is the test used to monitor warfarin.

Liver disease

  • Decreased synthesis of vitamin K-dependent factors
  • Increased fibrinolysis, secondary to decreased antiplasmin
  • Synthesis of abnormal fibrinogen
  • Labs: increased PT and aPTT; decreased platelets with hypersplenism
  • Treatment: FFP replacement when bleeding
Exam trap

Liver disease and DIC both give prolonged PT, prolonged aPTT, and low platelets. Vitamin K deficiency gives a prolonged PT with a normal or later-rising aPTT and a normal platelet count. The platelet count and the D-dimer are what separate the three — and vitamin K deficiency corrects with vitamin K in 24–48 hours, which liver disease will not.

Objective 2 · vWD

von Willebrand disease

The most common autosomally inherited bleeding disorder — estimated frequency around 1%, with no geographical or ethnic predilection. The VWF gene is on chromosome 12, cloned in 1985, and the protein undergoes extensive post-translational modification. Usually autosomal dominant transmission (types 1 and 2).

Bleeding is variable: epistaxis, spontaneous mucous membrane bleeding, excessive bleeding from wounds. Menorrhagia should prompt testing for vWD.

The factor VIII–vWF complex

  • F8 is produced by endothelial cells in the liver and elsewhere — NOT by hepatocytes
  • F8 binds vWF with high affinity, so if vWF levels are normal, all F8 circulates bound to vWF
  • Since vWF stabilizes F8, vWF deficiency causes a secondary decrease in F8
Why vWD prolongs the aPTT at all

vWF is not a clotting factor and has no place in the cascade — so on its own it should not touch the aPTT. It does so indirectly: unbound F8 is rapidly cleared, so losing vWF drags F8 down with it. That is why the aPTT in vWD is normal unless F8 falls significantly, and why severe Type 3 disease can produce hemarthrosis that mimics hemophilia — at that point the patient functionally has both a platelet adhesion defect and a factor 8 deficiency.

Quantitative variants

  • Type 1most common (65–85%). Autosomal dominant with variable expressivity, heterogeneous mechanisms. Decreased levels of normally functioning vWF (5–40%). Usually mild but heterogeneous in bleeding
  • Type 3very rare but severe, with extremely low vWF. Can have hemarthrosis like severe hemophilia. Deletions or frameshift mutations produce either a null phenotype or a vWF that is not secreted

Qualitative variant

  • Type 220–35%. Mostly missense substitutions causing defective multimer assembly. Produces structurally abnormal vWF that cannot interact normally with platelet GP1bα and F8. Mild to moderate bleeding. Many variants; Type 2A is most common

Laboratory evaluation

  • aPTT — not elevated unless F8 is significantly decreased
  • Platelet count normal, except low in type 2B
  • vWF activity (ristocetin cofactor activity)low in all types
  • vWF antigen — corresponds to activity in types 1 and 3, but type 2 can have antigen higher than activity
  • F8 activity — decreased
  • vWF multimer studies — a gel study that can be helpful
  • Genetics — useful in Type 3 for counselling; molecular tests exist for Type 2
The discriminator that defines quantitative versus qualitative

Antigen versus activity. Types 1 and 3 are quantity problems — the protein present works normally, so antigen and activity fall together. Type 2 is a quality problem — plenty of protein is made but it is defective, so antigen is higher than activity. A discrepancy between the two numbers is the exam's way of telling you it is Type 2.

Therapeutic management

  • Replace vWFVWF:F8 concentrate or recombinant vWF. Useful in all types, especially Types 3 and 2
  • Stimulate release of vWFDDAVP (desmopressin) releases vWF from endothelial Weibel-Palade bodies by agonist effect on vasopressin V2 receptors. Useful in Type 1, but check that it works in the individual patient
  • AntifibrinolyticsAmicar, tranexamic acid. Inhibit conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, inhibiting fibrinolysis and thus stabilizing clots
Why DDAVP works in Type 1 and not Type 3

DDAVP empties a storage depot — it releases vWF that endothelial cells have already made. Type 1 patients make normally functioning vWF, just too little, so there is a reserve to mobilize and the released protein works. Type 3 patients make almost none, or none that is secreted — there is nothing in the depot to release. Type 2 patients would release defective protein. Hence: DDAVP for Type 1, concentrate for Types 2 and 3.

Objective 2 · hemophilia

Hemophilia A and B

  • Sex-linked (X-linked) recessive
  • Hemophilia A (factor 8) — 1 in 5,000 males
  • Hemophilia B (factor 9, “Christmas disease”) — 1 in 30,000 males
  • Clinically indistinguishable from each other
  • aPTT elevated, and a mixing study CORRECTS it — mixing normal plasma with patient plasma normalizes the aPTT
  • Confirm with specific factor assays for F8 or F9
  • Multiple genetic defects — >700 described for F8, >800 for F9

Severity tracks factor activity level

ActivitySeverityBleeding pattern
<1%SevereSpontaneous hemarthroses and soft tissue bleeds
1–5%ModerateBleeding with mild trauma; hemarthroses with trauma, occasional spontaneous
>5%MildBleed only with significant trauma or surgery

Factor products

Prepared from pooled human plasma or by recombinant techniques — F8 concentrates for hemophilia A, F9 concentrates for hemophilia B, and plasma-derived or recombinant VWF-F8 concentrates for vWD. Dosing depends on the situation, and the products are very expensive.

Factor 8 inhibitors

  • Hemophilia A patients who have received F8 concentrates can develop an alloantibody that destroys F8
  • Older patients can develop an autoantibody against F8 without having hemophilia
  • Both bleed severely
  • The mixing study does NOT correct — the inhibiting antibody rapidly binds and inactivates the F8 in the normal plasma you just added
  • Inhibitor strength is estimated by the Bethesda titer

Treatment of an inhibitor:

  • Large doses of F8 to overwhelm the inhibitor
  • Recombinant 7a (NovoSeven) for high-titer inhibitors — activates X to Xa on the platelet surface, producing a “thrombin burst”
  • Activated prothrombin complex concentrates — non-activated factors II, IX, X plus activated factor VII
The mixing study is the highest-yield concept here

Corrects = deficiency. Does not correct = inhibitor. The logic is direct: if the patient is simply missing a factor, the normal plasma supplies it and the clotting time normalizes. If the patient has an antibody, that antibody attacks the factor in the donated plasma too, so the aPTT stays long. One cheap test separates a hereditary deficiency from an acquired inhibitor — and the treatments are completely different.

Why NovoSeven bypasses the problem

An F8 inhibitor blocks the intrinsic route to factor X. Recombinant 7a activates X directly on the platelet surface — it enters the cascade downstream of the blockade entirely, so the antibody is irrelevant. This is what “bypassing agent” means: you are not overcoming the antibody, you are routing around it.

Objective 3 · DIC

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

A “consumption coagulopathy” — consumption of platelets and clotting factors, with fibrin formation and subsequent lysis.

The defining paradox The patient CLOTS (thrombin production) and BLEEDS (factor and platelet consumption)

It can develop rapidly or slowly, and is classified as acute (uncompensated, with decreased clotting factors) versus chronic (compensated, with normal clotting factors).

Major associated disorders

  • Obstetric complications — placental abruption, retained dead fetus, septic abortion, amniotic fluid embolism
  • Infections — gram-negative sepsis, meningococcemia, Rocky Mountain spotted fever
  • Neoplasms — widespread cancer, acute promyelocytic leukemia
  • Massive tissue injury — trauma, burns
  • Other — acute intravascular hemolysis, snakebites

Clinical manifestations

Signs are often masked by the underlying disorder.

  • Bleeding is most common — ecchymoses, petechiae, purpura, trauma-related oozing, post-surgical hemorrhage (obstetric, trauma)
  • Vascular thrombosis is less common, due to fibrin formation — renal insufficiency, necrotic skin lesions. More often seen when cancer is the underlying cause

Pathologic microvascular fibrin deposition — platelet-fibrin thrombi — causes the end-organ damage in DIC and in the other microangiopathies.

Laboratory manifestations

TestDICCause
Platelet countThrombin activation, destroyed in the microvasculature, endotoxemia
PTDecreased clotting factors (V)
aPTTDecreased clotting factors (V, VIII)
FibrinogenThrombin-induced conversion to fibrin monomer and fibrin
D-dimer & fibrin degradation productsSecondary lysis of intravascular fibrin

Management

Treat the underlying disease.

  • Supportive care — vital signs, watch for bleeding and thrombosis, correct hypovolemia
  • Follow labs — platelet count, PT, aPTT, D-dimer — to monitor the patient
  • If bleeding, consider transfusing red cells, plasma, platelets, cryoprecipitate
Why every number moves, and why that is the diagnosis

DIC is the only disorder in these two lectures that hits all three arms of hemostasis at once. Widespread thrombin generation consumes platelets (count falls), consumes factors (PT and aPTT rise), and converts fibrinogen to fibrin (fibrinogen falls). Then fibrinolysis clears that fibrin and releases D-dimer (rises). No single-lesion disease can produce that combination — low platelets + low fibrinogen + prolonged PT and aPTT + high D-dimer is effectively pathognomonic.

Synthesis

Reading the panel — both bleeding lectures at once

PlateletsPTaPTTFibrinogenD-dimer
Vessel wall disease
Qualitative platelet defect (aspirin, Glanzmann)
ITP
TTP / HUS
Hemophilia A or B
vWD(↓ in 2B)– /
Vitamin K deficiency, early
Liver disease– /
DIC

Read it in three questions. Is the platelet count low? That splits quantitative from qualitative and vascular. Which clotting time is prolonged? Isolated PT points to F7 / vitamin K / warfarin; isolated aPTT points to F8, F9, F11, heparin, or an inhibitor; both point to the common pathway or consumption. Is fibrinogen low and D-dimer high? That is what makes it DIC rather than TTP or liver disease.

Highest yield

Seven things to carry out of this lecture

  1. Petechiae mean platelets; hemarthrosis means factors. The bleeding pattern narrows the differential before any lab returns.
  2. Qualitative platelet defects have a completely normal screening panel. Aspirin, Glanzmann, Bernard-Soulier, storage pool disease — normal count, normal PT, normal aPTT.
  3. Glanzmann = GPIIb-IIIa = aggregation, no response to ADP/collagen/epinephrine. Bernard-Soulier = GP1b = adhesion, no response to ristocetin, with giant platelets.
  4. PT rises first in vitamin K deficiency because F7 has the shortest half-life of factors 2, 7, 9, 10.
  5. F8 is made by endothelial cells, not hepatocytes, and vWF stabilizes it — which is why vWF deficiency secondarily lowers F8 and can prolong the aPTT.
  6. vWD antigen versus activity: they fall together in Types 1 and 3 (quantity), but antigen exceeds activity in Type 2 (quality). DDAVP for Type 1; concentrate for Types 2 and 3.
  7. Mixing study corrects = factor deficiency; does not correct = inhibitor. And DIC is the one that moves every number — low platelets, low fibrinogen, prolonged PT and aPTT, high D-dimer.

06 — Blood Transfusion Tayal

Blood component therapy: selecting, testing, and safely administering blood products, plus recognizing and managing transfusion reactions.

Learning Objectives

  1. Describe the principles of blood component therapy and indications for each component.
  2. Explain the ABO and Rh blood group systems and their importance for compatibility.
  3. Outline the pre-transfusion testing sequence (type, screen, crossmatch).
  4. State the transfusion triggers for RBCs and platelets.
  5. Recognize and distinguish the major acute and delayed transfusion reactions.
  6. Describe alternatives to allogeneic blood transfusion.

Blood Component Therapy

The goal is to provide only the specific component a patient needs using evidence-based thresholds. The blood supply is limited and every transfusion carries risk.

ComponentKey ContentsPrimary Indications
Red Blood CellsHemoglobin; stored at 4°C up to 42 daysAcute & chronic anemia; Hgb <7 g/dL often needs transfusion; Hgb >10 rarely needs it
PlateletsPlatelet concentrates; room temperature storageThrombocytopenic + bleeding; prophylaxis; platelet function disorders
Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)All clotting factors + fibrinogenDIC, liver disease, massive transfusion; TTP (provides ADAMTS-13); Coumadin reversal
CryoprecipitateFibrinogen, F8, vWF, F13Severe hypofibrinogenemia (<100 mg/dL) in DIC/massive transfusion; dysfibrinogenemia; F13 deficiency. NOT for hemophilia A or vWD
Whole BloodRBCs + plasma + platelets + volumeLife-threatening hemorrhage requiring all components simultaneously
Cryoprecipitate contains F8 and vWF but should NOT be used for hemophilia A or vWD — use specific factor concentrates. Cryo is for fibrinogen replacement.

Platelet Transfusion Triggers

Platelet transfusions are NOT helpful in DIC, ITP, TTP, and HIT. The low count reflects consumption or destruction; adding more platelets fuels thrombosis in HIT and does not address the underlying mechanism in the others.

FDA-Required Donor Testing

Every unit is tested for HIV-1/2 (NAT + antibodies), HCV (NAT + antibodies), HBV (NAT + HBsAg + anti-HBc), HTLV I/II, syphilis, West Nile virus, Trypanosoma cruzi, CMV (some units), and Babesia (endemic areas). With current testing, risk of HIV, HBV, or HCV is <1 in 2 million per transfusion.

ABO Blood Group System

The most important system for transfusion compatibility. ABO antigens are carbohydrate-based. The H antigen (fucose) is the backbone; A-transferase adds N-acetylgalactosamine; B-transferase adds galactose. Group O has neither, retaining only H antigen. The rare Bombay phenotype lacks H antigen and makes anti-H — incompatible with all standard ABO groups.

Why ABO mismatch causes immediate catastrophic hemolysis: Anti-A and anti-B are preformed IgM antibodies (no prior exposure needed — they arise naturally from environmental antigens like gut flora). IgM activates complement rapidly → C5b-9 MAC → intravascular hemolysis within minutes.

ABO Selection for RBC Transfusion

Recipient ABO (frequency)1st choice2nd3rd4th
O (45%)O
A (40%)AO
B (11%)BO
AB (4%)ABABO

AB = universal recipient; O = universal donor. Rh(D) positive = 85%; Rh(D) negative = 15%.

Rh Blood Group System

Second most important after ABO. Rh antigens are protein-based (function unclear). The D antigen is most clinically significant. Anti-D is IgG — forms only after exposure (transfusion, pregnancy, transplant) — crosses the placenta and causes hemolytic disease of the newborn. RhoGAM prevents sensitization in Rh(D)-negative pregnant women.

Pre-Transfusion Testing

  1. Type — Front type: patient RBCs with anti-A, anti-B, anti-D. Back type: patient plasma for anti-A and anti-B. Both must agree.
  2. Screen — Patient plasma screened for unexpected RBC antibodies (Kell, Duffy, Kidd, S, etc.). If positive → antibody identification.
  3. Crossmatch — Patient plasma mixed with donor RBCs to confirm compatibility before transfusion.
Antigen–disease associations to know:
  • P antigen — receptor for Parvovirus B19
  • i antigen — cold agglutinin target in EBV (mononucleosis)
  • I antigen — cold agglutinin target in Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • Duffy (Fy) antigen — receptor for Plasmodium vivax; Duffy-negative RBCs resistant to invasion

Transfusion Reactions

First step for any suspected reaction: STOP THE TRANSFUSION immediately.

ReactionMechanismPresentationTreatment/Prevention
Acute Hemolytic (AHTR) ABO incompatibility → preformed IgM → complement → intravascular hemolysis. Root cause: patient misidentification. Fever, chills, back pain, hypotension, tachycardia, hemoglobinuria Stop; fluids + diuretics; ICU cardiovascular support
Febrile Nonhemolytic (FNHTR) Cytokines in transfused unit disrupt thermoregulatory center Fever (>1°C) + chills. Common (1:100–200). Not life-threatening. Stop; acetaminophen; meperidine for rigors
Allergic Recipient IgE recognizes allergen in unit Pruritus, urticaria, ± wheezing — NO fever. Anaphylaxis in IgA-deficient patients. Antihistamines; pre-medication for future transfusions
TRALI Donor granulocyte/HLA antibodies → neutrophil activation → lung injury Acute respiratory distress, fever, hypoxemia — may need intubation Aggressive respiratory support (ICU). Risk reduced by restricting plasma donors.
TACO Volume overload in patients with poor cardiovascular reserve Cardiac failure + pulmonary compromise after large-volume transfusion Diuretics; slow transfusion rate for at-risk patients
TA-GVHD Donor T-lymphocytes proliferate and attack immunosuppressed recipient. Higher risk from related donors. 8–10 days post-transfusion: pancytopenia + marrow aplasia, fever, rash (face → extremities), mucositis, hepatitis. Rare but nearly always fatal. Prevention: irradiate cellular products. Irradiation 100% effective.
Septic Bacterial contamination (especially platelets — room temp storage) High fever, profound hypotension → fatal septicemia Stop; cultures; antibiotics. Platelets now tested for bacteria.
TRALI vs. TACO: both cause respiratory distress post-transfusion. TRALI = non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema (neutrophil-mediated). TACO = cardiogenic fluid overload (diuretics help). Distinguish by volume status and cardiac history.

Alternatives to Allogeneic Transfusion

Self-test · answers hidden

Question bank

All lectures, mixed

Questions from every lecture pool here and are not grouped or labeled. Work out what you are looking at before opening the answer. Renumber sequentially as you add more.

1A 58-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has a hemoglobin of 9.8 and an MCV of 84. Serum iron is low and % saturation is low.Which additional result would most strongly favor anemia of chronic disease over iron deficiency?

  • AElevated free erythrocyte protoporphyrin
  • BElevated ferritin with decreased TIBC
  • CDecreased ferritin with increased TIBC
  • DAn elevated RDW
  • EA normocytic rather than microcytic MCV
Answer

B

Both conditions give low serum iron and low % saturation, so those cannot separate them. Ferritin is the discriminator: high in ACD because hepcidin traps iron inside macrophages where ferritin stores it, and low in IDA because the stores are genuinely empty. TIBC moves opposite — down in ACD, up in IDA. C is the IDA pattern. A appears in both. D favors IDA if anything. E is unhelpful, since both start normocytic and become microcytic with time.

2A 4-year-old living in older housing has a microcytic anemia. The smear shows coarse basophilic stippling; marrow shows ringed sideroblasts.Which enzymes are inhibited?

  • AALA synthase only
  • BPorphobilinogen deaminase and uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
  • CMethionine synthase and methylmalonyl-CoA mutase
  • DALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase
  • EFerroportin and transferrin
Answer

D

Lead poisoning inhibits ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase — effectively the second step and the final step of heme synthesis. Because ferrochelatase is what inserts Fe2+ into protoporphyrin, iron accumulates in mitochondria of erythroid precursors, giving ringed sideroblasts, while damaged ribosomal RNA aggregates produce basophilic stippling in circulating cells. A is the congenital X-linked sideroblastic anemia and also the step needing B6. B causes acute intermittent porphyria and porphyria cutanea tarda. C is the B12-dependent pair.

3A 62-year-old man has a macrocytic anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils, glossitis and an elevated homocysteine. Methylmalonic acid is normal.Which is true?

  • AFolate deficiency, and neurologic findings would not be expected
  • BB12 deficiency, most likely from pernicious anemia
  • CB12 deficiency, and dorsal column findings should be sought
  • DEither deficiency, since the labs shown cannot distinguish them
  • ESideroblastic anemia from vitamin B6 deficiency
Answer

A

Normal methylmalonic acid is the finding that makes this folate. Both deficiencies impair DNA synthesis and raise homocysteine, because both feed the folate/methionine cycle — so macrocytosis, hypersegmented neutrophils and glossitis are shared. Only B12 also serves as adenosyl-B12 for methylmalonyl-CoA mutase, so only B12 deficiency raises MMA, and only B12 deficiency produces neurologic symptoms. D is wrong precisely because MMA does distinguish them.

4A 12-year-old with sickle cell disease has a baseline hemoglobin of 8 that drops to 4 over a week, with a reticulocyte count near zero.What is the most likely cause?

  • AAcute splenic sequestration
  • BSuperimposed iron deficiency from chronic hemolysis
  • CParvovirus B19 infection of erythroid precursors
  • DMyelophthisic replacement of the marrow by metastatic tumor
  • EFolate deficiency from increased cell turnover
Answer

C

Parvovirus B19 infects erythroid precursors and inhibits erythropoiesis, and the near-zero reticulocyte count localizes the problem to production rather than destruction. It matters far more in patients with underlying marrow stress — sickle cell disease, post-HSCT — because those patients have short red cell survival and depend on continuous high output, so even a brief production halt causes a crash. A normal person with a 120-day red cell lifespan would barely notice. D would be expected to give pancytopenia and nucleated RBCs with granulocyte precursors on smear. E is a real risk in hemolysis but develops over weeks to months and would be macrocytic.

5A patient on isoniazid for latent tuberculosis develops a microcytic anemia with ringed sideroblasts in the marrow.Which is true regarding the mechanism and management?

  • AIsoniazid chelates iron in the duodenum; treat with oral ferrous sulfate
  • BIsoniazid inhibits ferrochelatase directly; the drug must be stopped permanently
  • CIsoniazid causes folate antagonism; treat with folinic acid
  • DIsoniazid suppresses EPO production; treat with exogenous EPO
  • EIsoniazid causes vitamin B6 deficiency, and B6 is the cofactor for ALA synthase; treat with B6
Answer

E

Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency is a listed side effect of isoniazid, and B6 is the cofactor for ALA synthase — the rate-limiting first step of heme synthesis. Blocking it starves protoporphyrin production, giving a sideroblastic picture, and it is treatable with vitamin B6. B misassigns the enzyme: ferrochelatase inhibition is lead. Note this is the one sideroblastic cause with a clean, specific fix.

6A 44-year-old woman has fatigue, dysphagia, and a beefy red tongue. Hemoglobin 9.1, MCV 72.Which is true?

  • AThe triad describes Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and ferritin should be low
  • BThe triad describes pernicious anemia, and MCV should be above 100
  • CGlossitis excludes iron deficiency and points to B12 deficiency
  • DKoilonychia would be inconsistent with this diagnosis
  • EEsophageal webs indicate an underlying myelophthisic process
Answer

A

Plummer-Vinson syndrome is iron deficiency anemia + esophageal webs (dysphagia) + atrophic glossitis (beefy red tongue), and the microcytic MCV fits — so expect low ferritin, high TIBC, low serum iron, low % saturation, high RDW. C is the trap: glossitis occurs in both iron deficiency and the megaloblastic anemias, so it does not discriminate. D is wrong — koilonychia and pica are the other classic iron deficiency signs.

7A 70-year-old man with known prostate cancer has pancytopenia. The peripheral smear shows nucleated red blood cells and immature granulocytes.What does the smear finding indicate?

  • AAn appropriate marrow response to hemolysis
  • BAplastic anemia with a marrow void of hematopoietic elements
  • CMegaloblastic maturation arrest in the marrow
  • DA myelophthisic process replacing the marrow space
  • EParvovirus B19 infection of erythroid precursors
Answer

D

Myelophthisic processes replace the marrow space with something else — usually metastatic cancer — often producing pancytopenia, and characteristically forcing marrow elements not normally present in blood into circulation: nucleated RBCs and neutrophil precursors. That smear finding is what separates it from aplastic anemia, where the marrow is empty rather than crowded and the smear shows no such immature forms despite equally low counts.

8A patient with a hematocrit of 21% (normal 45%) has a reticulocyte count of 4%.How should this be interpreted?

  • AThe reticulocyte index is about 1.9, indicating an inadequate marrow response
  • BThe reticulocyte index is about 8.6, indicating brisk marrow response
  • CThe raw 4% is appropriate and needs no correction
  • DThe reticulocyte index cannot be calculated without a ferritin level
  • EAn index in this range establishes hemolysis as the cause
Answer

A

RI = % reticulocytes × (actual Hct / normal Hct) = 4 × (21/45) ≈ 1.9. Since <2 is an inadequate response and >3 is appropriate, this marrow is underperforming — a production problem. The correction exists precisely because the raw percentage is a fraction of a shrunken denominator, so 4% looks reassuring but represents little absolute output. Note that at this degree of anemia the RPI would be the more accurate calculation, since it also corrects for the prolonged maturation time of prematurely released reticulocytes.

9A patient underwent partial gastrectomy two years ago and now has a microcytic anemia.Which mechanism best explains the iron deficiency?

  • ALoss of intrinsic factor production by parietal cells
  • BLoss of gastric acid, which normally maintains iron in the better-absorbed ferrous Fe2+ state
  • CIncreased hepcidin from surgical inflammation blocking ferroportin
  • DLoss of terminal ileal absorptive surface
  • EDecreased transferrin synthesis by the liver
Answer

B

Stomach acid increases iron absorption by keeping iron reduced as ferrous Fe2+, which is absorbed better than oxidized ferric Fe3+. Remove the acid-producing stomach and absorption falls; duodenectomy does the same by removing the site of absorption itself. A is a real consequence of gastrectomy, but intrinsic factor loss causes B12 deficiency and a macrocytic anemia. D also causes B12 deficiency. Note that iron is absorbed in the duodenum and exported into blood by ferroportin.

10A 55-year-old woman has a macrocytic anemia, decreased vibration sense in both feet, and a spastic gait.Which is true regarding the most likely underlying cause?

  • AMethylmalonic acid would be expected to be normal
  • BBody stores are minimal, so the deficiency developed over weeks
  • CAutoimmune destruction of gastric parietal cells causing intrinsic factor deficiency is the most common cause
  • DHomocysteine would be expected to be normal
  • EDietary insufficiency is the most common cause in non-vegans
Answer

C

Neurologic findings make this B12, and pernicious anemia — autoimmune destruction of parietal cellsintrinsic factor deficiency → failure of B12 absorption in the small bowel — is the most common cause of B12 deficiency. The signs map to the tracts: dorsal columns give the lost proprioception and vibration sense, lateral corticospinal tracts give the spastic paresis. A and D are inverted; both MMA and homocysteine rise in B12 deficiency. B describes folate, whose stores are minimal — B12 has large hepatic stores, so dietary deficiency takes years and vegans are the exception.

11A patient started on a new medication develops pancytopenia. Marrow biopsy shows a hypocellular space largely replaced by fat, with no infiltrate.Which is true?

  • AThis is aplastic anemia; management includes stopping the causative drug, supportive care, and HSCT in some cases
  • BThis is a myelophthisic process and warrants a search for occult malignancy
  • CExogenous EPO alone would be expected to correct the pancytopenia
  • DIron studies would show an overload pattern
  • EThe peripheral smear should show nucleated red cells and granulocyte precursors
Answer

A

Aplastic anemia is damage to stem cells from medications, infections, or autoimmune/abnormal T-cell activity, with some idiopathic cases. The marrow is void of hematopoietic elements, giving pancytopenia, and treatment is to discontinue the causative medication, provide supportive care, and consider HSCT. B and E describe the myelophthisic alternative — but the biopsy here shows an empty marrow, not one crowded out by tumor, and it is that distinction the question turns on. C is wrong: EPO drives erythropoiesis only, and the problem is the stem cell compartment across all lineages.

12Which sequence correctly describes the progression of untreated iron deficiency?

  • ASerum iron falls first, then ferritin, with a microcytic anemia from the outset
  • BTIBC falls as stores deplete, and the anemia is macrocytic early
  • CFerritin depletes first with a rise in TIBC, then serum iron falls and % saturation drops, and the anemia is normocytic early before becoming microcytic and hypochromic
  • DAll iron studies change simultaneously once anemia is established
  • E% saturation rises early as transferrin increases
Answer

C

Stores go first: ferritin depletes and TIBC rises (TIBC measures transferrin molecules, which the body upregulates to scavenge harder). Then serum iron falls and % saturation drops — % saturation being the fraction of transferrin molecules actually carrying iron, so it falls both because iron is scarce and because the denominator grew. Only then does anemia appear, and it is normocytic early, becoming microcytic and hypochromic as hemoglobin synthesis fails. E is backwards for the same reason: more transferrin with less iron means a lower saturation.

13A patient with metastatic cancer has a normocytic anemia. Serum iron is low, ferritin is elevated, and TIBC is low.Which mechanism accounts for the low serum iron?

  • ADepleted total body iron stores from occult blood loss
  • BFailure of ferrochelatase to incorporate iron into protoporphyrin
  • CImpaired transferrin synthesis reducing iron transport capacity
  • DHepcidin binding ferroportin on enterocytes and macrophages, trapping iron intracellularly
  • EAutoimmune destruction of gastric parietal cells
Answer

D

This is anemia of chronic disease, and inflammation raises hepcidin, an acute phase reactant. Hepcidin binds ferroportin — the only export channel for iron — on intestinal cells and macrophages, so absorbed and recycled iron cannot reach the blood. Serum iron falls while ferritin rises, because the iron is stranded in storage. A would give low ferritin. B is sideroblastic anemia, which produces an iron overload pattern with high serum iron. Note her slide also credits hepcidin with suppressing EPO production, a second contributor to the anemia.

14A 19-year-old with a family history of anemia and gallstones has hemoglobin 11.2, MCV 82.6, MCHC 36.5 (high), RDW 16.5 (high). The smear shows small dense red cells lacking central pallor.Which best explains the elevated MCHC?

  • AIncreased hemoglobin synthesis per cell driven by high erythropoietin
  • BExtra marrow cell divisions producing undersized cells
  • CRelative cell dehydration from loss of K+ and water, concentrating the same hemoglobin in a smaller volume
  • DPrecipitation of denatured globin within the cell
  • EReticulocytosis, since reticulocytes carry more hemoglobin
Answer

C

This is hereditary spherocytosis, and her slide gives the mechanism directly: relative cell dehydration — the cell loses K+ and water, so the same amount of hemoglobin occupies a smaller volume, raising the concentration. Note the MCV of 82.6 is normal, which is the point: MCHC is a ratio and moves detectably, while MCV has a wide 80–100 range and stays inside it. B is the mechanism of iron deficiency, where cells are built undersized because hemoglobin is scarce — that lowers MCHC rather than raising it. D describes Heinz bodies in G6PD deficiency.

15Two patients both have hemolytic anemia with numerous spherocytes on smear.Which test best distinguishes hereditary spherocytosis from warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

  • AOsmotic fragility test
  • BReticulocyte count
  • CSerum haptoglobin
  • DDirect antiglobulin (Coombs) test
  • EHemoglobin electrophoresis
Answer

D

Her HS slide states explicitly that spherocytes are seen in HS and WAHA, so morphology cannot separate them. The DAT asks the one question that does: is antibody or complement bound to the red cell surface? Positive in WAHA, negative in HS. The reason both produce spherocytes is mechanical — splenic macrophages remove part of the membrane, whether it was weakened by a protein defect or coated with autoantibody, and the cell rounds up. A is abnormal in both, since it detects the spherical shape rather than its cause. B and C confirm hemolysis without localizing the mechanism.

16In the osmotic fragility test, red cells are incubated in saline solutions of progressively decreasing concentration.Why do spherocytes lyse at higher salt concentrations than normal cells?

  • AHaving lost membrane, a sphere has no surface-area reserve to accommodate the water it takes up
  • BSpherocytes have abnormally high intracellular sodium, drawing in water faster
  • CSpherocytes lack the ATP needed to maintain membrane integrity
  • DAntibody bound to the spherocyte surface fixes complement in hypotonic media
  • ESpherocytes are larger, so they reach their lytic volume sooner
Answer

A

A normal biconcave disc is, as her early slide puts it, a compromise that provides surface area beyond the minimum needed to enclose its volume — so in hypotonic saline it can swell toward a sphere before the membrane is stressed. A spherocyte has already lost that reserve; it is at minimum surface area for its contents, so any water entry immediately raises tension and it ruptures. Hence her stated principle: spherocytes are more sensitive to osmotic lysis and lyse sooner than normal RBCs. E is wrong on the facts — spherocytes are not larger; MCV is low-to-normal.

17A patient with hereditary spherocytosis undergoes splenectomy. Hemoglobin improves, and the smear now shows small round dark inclusions within occasional red cells.What are these, and why did they appear?

  • AHeinz bodies, from oxidative denaturation of hemoglobin
  • BHowell-Jolly bodies — DNA remnants, no longer removed because the spleen is gone
  • CBasophilic stippling, from aggregates of damaged ribosomal RNA
  • DRinged sideroblasts, from iron-laden mitochondria
  • ESchistocytes, from shear injury during surgery
Answer

B

Howell-Jolly bodies are remnants of DNA, and they appear after splenectomy because the spleen is what normally pits such inclusions out of circulating cells. Their presence is effectively a marker of asplenia or hyposplenism from any cause — which is why they also show up in sickle cell disease after autosplenectomy. Note the therapeutic logic: splenectomy is often helpful in HS because it increases the lifespan of the abnormal cells — you are removing the organ doing the destroying, not fixing the membrane. A and C are the inclusions of G6PD deficiency and sideroblastic anemia respectively.

18A man of Mediterranean descent develops acute hemolysis three days after starting a sulfonamide antibiotic.Which sequence describes the underlying mechanism?

  • ADrug binds a membrane protein → IgG forms against the drug-membrane complex → splenic clearance
  • BAbnormal globin polymerizes on deoxygenation → membrane damage → hemolysis
  • CLoss of the GPI anchor → absent CD55/CD59 → complement-mediated lysis
  • DFree α-globin chains precipitate → membrane damage → extravascular hemolysis
  • EReduced NADPH → less reduced glutathione → H2O2 not cleared → Heinz bodies → membrane damage
Answer

E

This is G6PD deficiency, and the chain is worth reciting in order: reduced G6PD activity gives less NADPH, which means less conversion of oxidized to reduced glutathione; since removing H2O2 requires reduced glutathione plus glutathione peroxidase, the peroxide accumulates and denatures hemoglobin, which precipitates as membrane-bound Heinz bodies that damage the membrane. Result can be extravascular or intravascular hemolysis. The triggers to recognize: antimalarials (primaquine, chloroquine), sulfonamides, nitrofurantoins, fava beans, and infections. A is the hapten drug mechanism, an immune process with a positive DAT — a distinct scenario despite also being drug-triggered.

19A smear drawn after an oxidant exposure shows cells with semicircular defects at their periphery, and a supravital stain reveals intracellular precipitates.Which is true?

  • AThe defects are the result of fibrin strand shearing
  • BThe precipitates are visible on routine Wright-Giemsa staining
  • CSplenic macrophages produced the defects by removing the inclusions, and the disorder is X-linked recessive
  • DThe inheritance is autosomal dominant with 75% penetrance
  • ETreatment consists of replacing the deficient enzyme
Answer

C

Bite cells form because splenic macrophages pick out the Heinz body inclusions, taking a bite of membrane with them, and G6PD deficiency is X-linked recessive — so clinically it presents in males. B is the trap: Heinz bodies require supravital staining and are not seen on a routine smear, which is why the question specifies it. E is wrong and worth remembering — treatment is preventive, avoiding oxidant exposure; there is no enzyme to replace. A describes schistocytes in MAHA, which are fragments rather than bitten cells.

20Routine screening in a patient of West African ancestry shows numerous elliptical red cells. Hemoglobin, reticulocyte count, bilirubin and LDH are all normal.What is the appropriate interpretation?

  • AHereditary elliptocytosis, most often from α-spectrin mutations, autosomal dominant, and requiring no treatment
  • BHereditary pyropoikilocytosis, which is autosomal dominant and requires transfusion support
  • CEarly sickle cell disease, since irreversibly sickled cells can appear elliptical
  • Dβ-thalassemia trait, given the ancestry and abnormal cell shape
  • EAn artifact of slide preparation requiring a repeat smear
Answer

A

Hereditary elliptocytosis comes most commonly from mutations in the α-spectrin genes (SPTA1, SPTB), is autosomal dominant, and is common in equatorial Africa because it confers malaria resistance. The critical clinical point is that the majority of patients are NOT anemic — elliptocytes are an incidental finding and treatment is not necessary, since HE is uncommonly associated with hemolysis. The entirely normal hemolysis panel here fits that exactly. B inverts two facts: pyropoikilocytosis is the severe form, is autosomal recessive, and does cause hemolysis and anemia.

21Which statement about the sickle cell mutation is correct?

  • AA deletion in the α-globin gene cluster on chromosome 16
  • BA splice-site mutation reducing but not eliminating β-globin synthesis
  • CA point mutation replacing valine with glutamate, altering oxygen affinity
  • DA point mutation in the 6th codon of the β-globin gene replacing glutamate with valine, which changes protein charge and electrophoretic mobility
  • EA somatic mutation in the PIGA gene acquired by a hematopoietic stem cell clone
Answer

D

Point mutation in the 6th codon of the β-globin gene, glutamate (glutamic acid) → valine. The direction matters — C has it backwards. The consequence worth linking: because glutamate is charged and valine is not, the protein's charge changes, which changes electrophoretic mobility and is precisely what makes hemoglobin electrophoresis diagnostic (SS = disease, AS = trait, AA = normal). Note also the contrast in category: sickle cell is a hemoglobinopathy — an abnormal globin — whereas B describes a thalassemia, which is decreased synthesis of a normal globin. A is α-thal and E is PNH.

22A 3-year-old with sickle cell disease presents with sudden abdominal distension, a rapidly enlarging spleen, hemoglobin falling from 8 to 4, and hypotension.Which is true?

  • AThis is autosplenectomy, and pneumococcal prophylaxis is the priority
  • BThis is splenic sequestration crisis, a potentially life-threatening event from trapping of RBCs with hypovolemia and circulatory collapse
  • CThis is an aplastic crisis and the reticulocyte count will be elevated
  • DThis is microangiopathic hemolysis and schistocytes should be sought
  • EThe spleen in sickle cell disease is invariably small and fibrotic at this age
Answer

B

Splenic sequestration crisis: a sudden enlargement of the spleen due to trapping of RBCs, with a rapid drop in Hb/Hct plus hypovolemia and circulatory collapse — potentially life-threatening because blood volume is being lost into the spleen, not just red cell mass. The spleen is congested with sinuses dilated by RBCs. E and A capture the later stage: repeated infarction produces autosplenectomy — small, shrunken, fibrotic, non-functional — leaving susceptibility to encapsulated organisms (pneumococci, H. influenzae). The sequence is congestion and sequestration first, autoinfarction later, so a young child can still have a spleen large enough to sequester. C is wrong in two ways: aplastic crisis has no splenic enlargement, and the retic count would be low.

23Which pairing of a sickle cell treatment strategy with its rationale is correct?

  • AIron supplementation — to correct the chronic anemia
  • BMaintaining a mild metabolic acidosis — to reduce polymerization
  • CHydroxyurea — to reduce HbS by suppressing β-globin transcription
  • DTransfusion to keep HbS above 30% — to maintain oxygen delivery
  • EMaintaining hydration — because dehydration raises MCHC and promotes polymerization
Answer

E

Avoid dehydration, which decreases MCHC — her stated goal of reducing HbS per cell. The logic is the self-amplifying cycle: sickling drives out K+ and water, raising intracellular hemoglobin concentration, and a higher concentration makes polymerization easier on the next deoxygenation. Keeping the cell hydrated dilutes the polymerizing species. C has the right drug and the wrong mechanism — hydroxyurea increases HbF, which contains no β chains and therefore cannot join HbS polymer (the same reason newborns are protected). D inverts the target: transfusion aims to keep HbS below 30%. B is backwards — acidosis promotes sickling, so intracellular pH should be maintained.

24Two patients are microcytic and hypochromic. Patient 1: MCV 62, RBC count elevated, RDW normal. Patient 2: MCV 76, RBC count low, RDW elevated.Which interpretation is correct?

  • ABoth are iron deficient; patient 1 is simply further along
  • BPatient 1 has iron deficiency and patient 2 has thalassemia trait
  • CPatient 1 has thalassemia and patient 2 has iron deficiency, and the RDW plus RBC count are what distinguish them
  • DNeither pattern is consistent with thalassemia, since thalassemia raises the RDW
  • EOnly hemoglobin electrophoresis can distinguish these, since the indices overlap completely
Answer

C

Her thalassemia lab slide gives the pattern: RBC count increased (“lots of small cells”), MCV decreased — think thalassemia if MCV <67, MCH and MCHC decreased, and critically a NORMAL RDW. The RDW is normal because the genetic defect is present in every cell, so the population is uniformly small. In iron deficiency the RDW is high, because normal cells made before the iron ran out still circulate alongside new small ones, and the RBC count is low. Her β-thal minor slide adds the practical instruction: exclude iron deficiency. Electrophoresis is confirmatory (↑HbA2 in β-thal trait), but the CBC already separates them.

25Which correctly matches the β-thalassemia mutation type to its phenotype and explains why?

  • AChain terminator mutations cause β0, because a premature stop codon yields a truncated, degraded globin with no usable product; splicing mutations cause β+, because the correct splice site is still used part of the time
  • BChain terminator mutations cause β+, because translation of a shortened chain still yields partially functional globin
  • CSplicing mutations cause β0, because all transcripts are aberrantly spliced and degraded
  • DBoth types cause β0; the β+ phenotype results only from large gene deletions
  • ENeither type applies to β-thalassemia, which is caused predominantly by gene deletions
Answer

A

Chain terminator → β0; splicing → β+. A premature stop codon is all-or-nothing: the truncated globin cannot assemble into hemoglobin and is degraded, so nothing usable comes off that allele. Splicing is competitive: the weakened or alternative site is used most of the time, but the correct site is still used some of the time, leaving a minority of normal mRNA — hence reduced but present output. E states the contrast backwards: β-thal is mostly point mutations, while α-thal is mostly gene deletions.

26A child with β-thalassemia major who has never been transfused is found to have iron deposition in the liver on a Prussian blue stain.What is the mechanism?

  • AHepcidin-mediated trapping of iron within hepatic macrophages
  • BFailure of ferrochelatase to incorporate iron into protoporphyrin
  • CRepeated intravascular hemolysis delivering free hemoglobin to the liver
  • DIneffective erythropoiesis driving increased dietary iron absorption
  • ECoexistent hereditary hemochromatosis, which is required to produce overload without transfusion
Answer

D

On her Cooley's anemia pathogenesis figure, the arrow from ineffective erythropoiesis leads to increased iron absorption from the stomach, then to iron deposition in heart, liver and pancreassystemic iron overload (secondary hemochromatosis). Because free α chains precipitate and kill erythroblasts, most die in the marrow; that futile erythroid activity signals for more iron even though iron was never the problem. Transfusion then adds a second, independent iron burden, which is why chronically transfused patients need chelation — but the question specifies no transfusions, and overload still occurs. B is sideroblastic anemia. A describes anemia of chronic disease, where serum iron is low.

27A newborn is severely anemic with generalized edema, ascites and marked hepatosplenomegaly. Hemoglobin electrophoresis shows tetramers of γ globin.Which is true?

  • AThree of four α-globin genes are deleted, producing HbH disease
  • BAll four α-globin genes are deleted; the γ4 tetramers have high oxygen affinity, and death in utero is usual
  • CThis is β-thalassemia major, and HbA2 would be markedly elevated
  • DTwo α-globin genes are deleted, giving thalassemia trait with mild anemia
  • EThe tetramers are composed of excess β globin, which cannot bind oxygen
Answer

B

Hb Bart hydrops fetalis syndromeall four α genes deleted (––/––), with tetramers of excess γ globin having high O2 affinity, giving severe anemia, generalized edema, ascites, marked hepatosplenomegaly, skeletal and cardiovascular malformations, and usually death in utero. The high oxygen affinity is the lethal detail: γ4 binds oxygen but will not release it to tissues, so the fetus is hypoxic despite carrying hemoglobin. The tetramer identity tracks gene count — 3 genes deleted gives HbH disease with β4 tetramers (A and E describe that instead), because after birth β is the abundant unpaired chain, while in the fetus it is γ.

28A microcytic patient has an elevated HbA2 of 6% on electrophoresis.What does this indicate?

  • Aα-thalassemia trait, since HbA2 rises with any reduction in α chains
  • BIron deficiency anemia, which characteristically elevates HbA2
  • Cβ-thalassemia major, in which HbA2 is the predominant hemoglobin
  • DSickle cell trait, since HbS migrates with HbA2
  • Eβ-thalassemia trait or intermedia; HbA2 is not increased in α-thalassemia
Answer

E

Her lab slide states it directly: increased HbA2 in β-thal trait and β-thal intermedia, but NOT in α-thal, with the β-thal minor range given as HbA2 4–8% against a normal 1.5–4%. This is what makes electrophoresis useful for sorting the two thalassemias, since both give the same microcytic CBC. C is the exception worth noting on her electrophoresis table: in β-thal major, HbA2 is only trace — HbF at 70–90% dominates the percentages. So elevated HbA2 points to the heterozygous or intermediate states, not major.

29A 30-year-old has chronic hemolytic anemia, pancytopenia, and a deep vein thrombosis. Flow cytometry shows red cells and granulocytes lacking CD55 and CD59.Which is true?

  • AA somatic PIGA mutation prevents GPI anchor formation, thrombosis is the most common cause of mortality, and eculizumab reduces hemolysis
  • BThe disorder is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern and treated by avoiding oxidants
  • CThe direct antiglobulin test should be strongly positive, since the hemolysis is complement-mediated
  • DCorticosteroids and rituximab are first-line, as in warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
  • EThe defect is in spectrin and ankyrin, and splenectomy is curative
Answer

A

PNH: a somatic mutation in PIG-A, required to form the red cell GPI anchor, so anchor-dependent proteins including CD55 (decay accelerating factor) and CD59 (membrane inhibitor of reactive lysis, which inhibits C3 convertase) cannot attach — leaving cells sensitive to complement-mediated lysis. The triad is chronic hemolytic anemia, thrombosis (the most common cause of mortality), and pancytopenia from marrow failure. Treatment is marrow transplant or anti-C5 antibody (eculizumab); median survival 10 years. C is the instructive distractor: the hemolysis involves complement but no antibody, so the DAT is negative — PNH is classified as a non-immune, acquired clonal disorder.

30An older adult develops hemolytic anemia and acrocyanosis of the fingers in cold weather. The smear shows clumped red cells, and the DAT is positive for complement but negative for IgG.Which is true?

  • AThis is warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia; the clumping reflects IgG cross-linking at 37°C
  • BThe clumping is rouleaux, indicating a paraprotein from plasma cell myeloma
  • CCold agglutinin syndrome from an IgM antibody, often anti-I; a workup for lymphoma or monoclonal gammopathy is warranted
  • DParoxysmal cold hemoglobinuria from an IgG anti-P antibody
  • EHereditary spherocytosis, since cold exposure precipitates splenic trapping
Answer

C

Cold agglutinin syndrome — usually IgM, often against I or i antigens, with the thermal amplitude of the antibody determining severity, hence symptoms in fingers, toes and cold-exposed areas. The DAT pattern is the tell: it detects complement rather than IgG, because IgM elutes as the blood rewarms while the complement it deposited remains bound. In an older adult, her slide directs you toward monoclonal gammopathies — plasma cell myeloma, lymphomas; the infection-associated form (Mycoplasma pneumoniae, EBV, CMV, influenza, HIV) is usually self-limited. A is excluded because in WAHA the cells are NOT stuck together. B describes the other cause of cells adhering — rouleaux, stacked from paraproteins rather than clumped by antibody.

31A child develops cola-colored urine after playing outside in the cold, several weeks after a viral illness. Serum testing shows an antibody that binds red cells at low temperature and lyses them on warming.Which is true?

  • AThe antibody is IgM against the I antigen, and corticosteroids are first-line therapy
  • BThis is warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia and splenectomy should be considered
  • CThe hemolysis is extravascular, occurring in splenic macrophages
  • DThis is the Donath-Landsteiner biphasic hemolysin — IgG against the P antigen — causing intravascular hemolysis; it is self-limited and corticosteroids are not helpful
  • EThis is microangiopathic hemolysis and schistocytes will dominate the smear
Answer

D

Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria, mediated by the Donath-Landsteiner antibody — an IgG autoantibody against the P antigen, historically linked to syphilis and now typically following viral infection in children. It is a biphasic hemolysin: antibody and early complement components bind at low temperature, then terminal complement components form on warming and lyse the cells intravascularly — which is why the presentation is hemoglobinuria, and why C is wrong. Management is the deliberate contrast with WAHA: self-limited, avoid cold, corticosteroids are not helpful. A confuses it with cold agglutinin syndrome, which is IgM anti-I.

32A patient with sepsis develops anemia, thrombocytopenia, and numerous red cell fragments on smear.Which best describes the mechanism and the expected laboratory pattern?

  • ASplenic macrophages partially removing antibody-coated membrane, producing spherocytes with a positive DAT
  • BRed cells sheared on dense fibrin strands, producing schistocytes with markedly elevated LDH, very low haptoglobin, and hemoglobinuria
  • COxidative denaturation of hemoglobin producing Heinz bodies and bite cells
  • DComplement-mediated lysis from absent CD55 and CD59
  • EPrecipitation of unpaired globin chains within erythroblasts causing marrow death
Answer

B

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia — red cells are damaged on contact with dense fibrin strands, giving schistocytes (red cell fragments). Causes: DIC (the fit here, with sepsis and thrombocytopenia), TTP, and HUS. Because the mechanism is shearing inside the vessel rather than phagocytosis, the whole cytoplasm spills into plasma — hence the intravascular pattern of markedly high LDH, very low haptoglobin, and hemoglobinuria. The useful morphologic rule: fragmented cell means shear; rounded cell means spleen. A is WAHA, C is G6PD, D is PNH, E is thalassemia.

33Three patients develop immune hemolytic anemia on medication: one on penicillin, one on quinidine, one on α-methyldopa.Which statement is correct?

  • AAll three act by the hapten mechanism, in which the drug binds a membrane protein
  • BAll three generate IgM antibodies requiring the drug to be present for hemolysis to occur
  • CQuinidine acts by autoantibody formation with apparent specificity for Rh antigens
  • DPenicillin acts by immune complex formation, with the drug-antibody complex adsorbing to red cells
  • EPenicillin is hapten/drug adsorption, quinidine is immune complex (ternary), and α-methyldopa induces true autoantibodies like those in WAHA
Answer

E

Her three mechanisms, matched to their drugs: hapten/drug adsorption — the drug binds an RBC membrane protein and IgG forms against the drug-membrane complex (penicillin, cephalosporins, tetracycline); immune complex / ternary complex — an IgM antibody forms on exposure and on further exposure the drug-antibody complex adsorbs to RBCs (quinidine, quinine, chlorpropamide); and autoantibody formationtrue autoantibodies (IgG) like those in WAHA, with apparent specificity for Rh antigens (α-methyldopa). Treatment across all three is identifying and stopping the offending drug, and note her warning that drugs can cause severe intravascular hemolysis. The conceptual difference: the first two need the drug present, while the third has created a genuinely self-directed antibody that can persist.

34A 9-year-old develops palpable purpura over the buttocks and lower legs two weeks after an upper respiratory infection, along with abdominal pain and joint pain. Platelet count 280,000, PT and aPTT normal.Which best explains the bleeding?

  • AAn IgG autoantibody against platelet GPIIb-IIIa
  • BA qualitative platelet function defect
  • CImmune complex–mediated vessel wall injury
  • DConsumption of clotting factors and platelets
  • EDeficiency of a vWF-cleaving metalloprotease
Answer

C

This is Henoch-Schönlein purpura, an immune complex vasculitis and one of the “non-thrombocytopenic purpuras.” The diagnostic signature is purpura with a completely normal panel — normal platelet count and normal PT/aPTT — because no routine test evaluates the vessel wall. A is ITP (would give thrombocytopenia). B is possible in principle but does not explain the post-infectious vasculitic syndrome with abdominal and joint findings. D is DIC (PT and aPTT would be prolonged). E is TTP (would give thrombocytopenia and schistocytes).

35A patient's routine CBC shows a platelet count of 62,000/µL. He reports no bruising, no bleeding, and no petechiae.Which is true?

  • AThe absence of symptoms is inconsistent with this count and the result is likely spurious
  • BThis is the expected finding, since counts in the 50,000–100,000 range are typically asymptomatic
  • CHe should be transfused prophylactically to prevent spontaneous hemorrhage
  • DSpontaneous bruising and menorrhagia are expected at this count
  • EBleeding risk correlates with platelet function rather than platelet count in all cases
Answer

B

Her thresholds are worth memorizing: 50,000–100,000 → nothing; 30,000–50,000 → bruising with minor trauma; 10,000–30,000 → spontaneous bruising and menorrhagia; <10,000 → spontaneous bleeding into gums and gut, nosebleeds. D describes the 10,000–30,000 range. C is wrong — prophylactic transfusion is not indicated, and in ITP specifically it has no role at any count in a non-bleeding patient. E overstates a real point; count and function both matter.

36A 28-year-old woman has isolated thrombocytopenia of 22,000 with petechiae. Hemoglobin and white count are normal, PT and aPTT are normal, and the smear shows large platelets. A marrow exam is performed.What finding is expected, and why?

  • ADecreased megakaryocytes, because the autoantibody suppresses megakaryocyte development
  • BA hypocellular marrow largely replaced by fat
  • CMegakaryocytes replaced by an infiltrating process
  • DIncreased megakaryocytes, because the defect is peripheral destruction and the marrow is compensating
  • ENormal megakaryocytes with ringed sideroblasts in the erythroid line
Answer

D

ITP is a destructive thrombocytopenia — IgG coats platelet glycoproteins and macrophages remove them — so the marrow responds by increasing megakaryocytes. The large platelets on smear reflect the same thing: young platelets released under drive are large. The marrow's other purpose here is exclusion — ruling out infiltration, leukemia, lymphoma, and MDS, which matters because ITP is a diagnosis of exclusion. B is aplastic anemia, C is a myelophthisic process, E belongs to sideroblastic anemia.

37A patient with known chronic ITP has a platelet count that has fallen to essentially zero. He has no bleeding of any kind.Regarding platelet transfusion, which is correct?

  • AThere is no role for prophylactic transfusion, because the autoantibody will destroy transfused platelets as rapidly as the patient's own
  • BTransfusion is mandatory at counts below 10,000 regardless of bleeding
  • CTransfusion is indicated because it will suppress autoantibody production
  • DTransfusion is contraindicated because it will precipitate thrombosis
  • ETransfusion should be given together with heparin to prevent clotting
Answer

A

Her slide states it explicitly: no role for prophylactic platelet transfusion, even with ZERO platelets, in a non-bleeding patient. The mechanism explains the rule — the circulating autoantibody targets a glycoprotein present on donor platelets too, so they are cleared just as fast. Transfusion is reserved for active serious bleeding. D describes the reasoning in HIT and TTP, where transfusion may worsen thrombosis — a different mechanism, and worth keeping separate. Treatment here is steroids, rituximab, IVIG or anti-D, splenectomy, or a TPO receptor agonist.

38A 5-year-old develops sudden petechiae and a platelet count of 18,000 ten days after a viral illness. He is otherwise well, with no organomegaly.Which is true regarding this presentation compared with the adult form?

  • AIt is more likely to become chronic with relapses than the adult form
  • BCorticosteroids are mandatory to prevent intracranial hemorrhage
  • CSplenectomy is the treatment of choice in this age group
  • DOnset is characteristically insidious rather than abrupt
  • EOnset is abrupt, typically follows a viral illness, and spontaneous permanent remission is expected
Answer

E

Acute childhood ITP is clinically a different disease from the adult chronic form: abrupt onset, usually following a viral illness, usually managed by observation without steroids, and characterized by spontaneous and permanent remission. The contrast she draws is with adults, who often have chronic disease with relapses — so A and D invert the picture, and B and C over-treat a self-limited illness.

39A postoperative patient on unfractionated heparin has a platelet count fall from 240,000 to 85,000 on day 7, and develops a new deep vein thrombosis.Which best explains why this patient clots rather than bleeds?

  • AHeparin directly cross-links platelets, forming aggregates
  • BThe antibody binds the platelet FcγRIIa receptor and activates platelets, which release procoagulant microparticles including thrombin, before they are consumed
  • CThe falling count reflects marrow suppression, and thrombosis is coincidental
  • DUltra-large vWF multimers accumulate and aggregate platelets in the microcirculation
  • EAntithrombin is consumed, leaving thrombin unopposed
Answer

B

The order of events is the whole answer in HIT. IgG against heparin-PF4 binds FcγRIIa and activates platelets; activated platelets release procoagulant microparticles, including thrombin; only then does the count fall as platelets are consumed and destroyed. Because activation precedes destruction, the thrombocytopenia is a marker of consumption, not a bleeding risk. Roughly 1/3 develop thrombosis, and 1/3 of those are amputated or die. D is the TTP mechanism.

40Two patients on heparin develop thrombocytopenia. Patient 1: count falls to 130,000 on day 2 and recovers while heparin continues, with no thrombosis. Patient 2: count falls to 55,000 on day 7 and does not recover until heparin is stopped.Which interpretation is correct?

  • ABoth represent Type II HIT, differing only in severity
  • BPatient 1 has Type II HIT and requires a direct thrombin inhibitor
  • CPatient 2 has Type I HIT and heparin may be safely continued
  • DPatient 1 has non-immune Type I HIT; Patient 2 has immune Type II HIT
  • ENeither is HIT, since immune HIT always presents within 48 hours
Answer

D

Type I is non-immune: mild (100,000–150,000), rapid onset at 1–2 days, resolves despite continued heparin, and no thrombosis. Type II is immune (heparin-PF4 IgG): severe (<100,000), delayed onset at 5–10 days, persists until heparin is discontinued, and carries thromboembolic complications. The timing and the behavior on continued heparin are the two discriminators, and they are also two of the 4 Ts.

41A patient with a high 4 Ts score and a positive heparin-PF4 immunoassay has all heparin discontinued, including flushes. Her platelet count is 48,000.What else is required?

  • ANothing further; stopping heparin removes the trigger and is sufficient
  • BProphylactic platelet transfusion to raise the count above 100,000
  • CA non-heparin anticoagulant such as argatroban or bivalirudin, and avoidance of platelet transfusion
  • DImmediate transition to warfarin monotherapy
  • ETherapeutic plasma exchange to remove the heparin-PF4 antibody
Answer

C

Her slide is emphatic that stopping heparin is NOT ENOUGH — the thrombin already generated persists, so a direct thrombin inhibitor (argatroban, bivalirudin) is required to neutralize it. And platelet transfusions should be avoided, since they may increase thrombotic risk in an actively prothrombotic state. B does exactly the wrong thing. E is the treatment for TTP, not HIT.

42Two patients develop thrombocytopenia on medication. Patient 1 is on quinidine; Patient 2 is receiving cytotoxic chemotherapy.Which correctly pairs the mechanisms?

  • APatient 1 — drug-dependent antibody reacting with platelet membrane glycoproteins; Patient 2 — direct toxic effect on the marrow
  • BPatient 1 — direct marrow toxicity; Patient 2 — drug-dependent antibody
  • CBoth are immune-mediated, differing only in the target glycoprotein
  • DBoth reflect splenic sequestration
  • EPatient 1 — antibody against a drug-platelet factor 4 complex; Patient 2 — dilutional
Answer

A

Quinine, quinidine, and sulfonamide antibiotics cause an immune thrombocytopenia — antibodies react with platelet membrane glycoproteins only when the drug is present, and coated platelets are removed. Chemotherapeutic agents are the classic non-immune cause: direct marrow toxicity and failed production. E confuses this with HIT, where the antibody targets a heparin-PF4 complex specifically. Note the cross-lecture link: quinine and quinidine are also the ternary complex drugs in immune hemolytic anemia.

43A term newborn has a platelet count of 14,000 and scattered petechiae. The mother's platelet count is 265,000. This is her first pregnancy.Which is true?

  • AThis is transplacental passage of maternal autoantibody from maternal ITP
  • BA normal maternal count excludes an antibody-mediated process
  • CLike Rh disease, this requires a prior sensitizing pregnancy, so an alloimmune cause is unlikely
  • DThe mechanism is fetal marrow failure from an intrauterine infection
  • EMaternal IgG alloantibody against a fetal platelet antigen the mother lacks, most often HPA-1a, with the first child often affected
Answer

E

NAIT. Two features nail it. First, the mother's platelet count is normal — the antibody is an alloantibody against HPA-1a, an antigen she does not possess, so her own platelets are untouched. In maternal ITP (option A) the antibody is an autoantibody and the mother would be thrombocytopenic too. Second, the first child is often affected, in deliberate contrast to Rh disease of the newborn, which classically requires a second pregnancy — which is why C is wrong. Detected by ELISA; treated with IVIG ± corticosteroids and platelet transfusion, and subsequent pregnancies are high-risk.

44A 38-year-old woman presents with fever, confusion, a platelet count of 18,000, hemoglobin 7.8 with numerous schistocytes, LDH 1,400, and a creatinine of 1.6.Which mechanism underlies this presentation?

  • AShiga-like toxin injuring endothelium
  • BAutoantibody against ADAMTS13, so ultra-large vWF multimers are not cleaved and aggregate platelets in the microcirculation
  • CLoss of CD55 and CD59 permitting complement-mediated lysis
  • DWidespread tissue factor exposure consuming factors and fibrinogen
  • EInherited mutations in complement regulatory genes
Answer

B

The pentad — thrombocytopenia, MAHA, renal dysfunction, neurologic disturbance, fever — with only a mild creatinine rise is TTP, and the acquired form is caused by an IgG autoantibody against ADAMTS13. Without that metalloprotease, sticky ultra-large vWF multimers persist and drive platelet activation and aggregation in small vessels. A is typical HUS (where renal failure would be prominent and ADAMTS13 normal). C is PNH. D is DIC. E is aHUS.

45Two patients each have thrombocytopenia, anemia, and schistocytes on smear. Patient 1: PT and aPTT normal, fibrinogen normal. Patient 2: PT and aPTT both prolonged, fibrinogen low, D-dimer markedly elevated.Which interpretation is correct?

  • ABoth are DIC; the coagulation times simply reflect different stages
  • BPatient 1 has DIC and Patient 2 has TTP
  • CThe smear findings distinguish them, and the coagulation studies add nothing
  • DPatient 1 has a thrombotic microangiopathy consuming platelets only; Patient 2 has DIC consuming factors and fibrinogen as well
  • EPatient 1 has DIC, because normal coagulation times exclude a microangiopathy
Answer

D

This is the most testable contrast across the two bleeding lectures. Both produce microvascular thrombi and shear red cells, so the smear cannot separate them. The difference is what gets consumed. In TTP, platelets are consumed on vWF strands while the cascade is untouched — so PT and aPTT are normal (unless DIC supervenes) and fibrinogen is normal. In DIC, the cascade itself is activated, consuming factors and fibrinogen — so both times prolong, fibrinogen falls, and secondary fibrinolysis raises D-dimer.

46A patient with TTP is started on therapeutic plasma exchange rather than plasma infusion alone.What is the rationale?

  • AIt removes schistocytes, preventing further hemolysis
  • BIt replaces platelets that have been consumed
  • CIt removes the autoantibody and the accumulated ultra-large multimers while supplying functional ADAMTS13
  • DIt removes complement components responsible for lysis
  • EIt corrects the prolonged PT and aPTT characteristic of TTP
Answer

C

Exchange does two jobs in one procedure, exactly as her slide annotates it: removes the autoantibody and provides ADAMTS13. Infusion alone would supply enzyme but leave the antibody behind to neutralize it — which is why exchange, not infusion, is the emergency intervention. Adjuncts reduce antibody production (steroids, rituximab) or block vWF (caplacizumab). E is wrong on its premise: PT and aPTT are normal in TTP.

47A 4-year-old develops bloody diarrhea after a family barbecue, then anemia with schistocytes, a platelet count of 60,000, and a creatinine of 3.8 requiring dialysis. ADAMTS13 activity is normal.Which is true?

  • AShiga-like toxin from enterohemorrhagic E. coli disrupted endothelium; plasma exchange is not the treatment
  • BNormal ADAMTS13 activity excludes a microangiopathy
  • CPlasma exchange should be started urgently, as in TTP
  • DAn inherited complement regulatory mutation is the most likely cause
  • ENeurologic involvement is expected to dominate the presentation
Answer

A

Typical HUS. Three features separate it from TTP: prominent acute renal failure rather than a mild creatinine rise, NORMAL ADAMTS13, and neurologic symptoms less common than in TTP (so E is wrong). It follows food contaminated with enterohemorrhagic E. coli producing Shiga-like toxins that disrupt endothelium and activate platelets. It is NOT treated by plasma exchange — there is no autoantibody to remove and no missing enzyme to supply, so care is supportive. Children often recover. D describes aHUS.

48An adult has recurrent episodes of microangiopathic hemolysis, thrombocytopenia, and progressive renal failure. There is no diarrheal prodrome, ADAMTS13 is normal, and a mutation in a complement regulatory gene is identified.Which is true regarding treatment?

  • APlasma exchange is definitive, as in TTP
  • BAntibiotics directed at Shiga toxin–producing organisms
  • CDirect thrombin inhibition with argatroban
  • DNo therapy exists, and the course is uniformly self-limited
  • EA complement inhibitor such as eculizumab, since the lesion is excessive complement activation
Answer

E

Atypical HUS — non-infective, inherited (complement component gene mutations) or sporadic, chronic and recurring with >50% progressing to end-stage renal failure and 10–25% early mortality. Because the lesion is excessive complement activation, patients respond to complement inhibitors (eculizumab). Note the cross-lecture symmetry: eculizumab also treats PNH, where cells lack CD55 and CD59 and complement is therefore unopposed — too little regulation in one disease, too much activation in the other, same drug target.

49A patient bleeds excessively after a dental extraction. Platelet count 310,000, PT normal, aPTT normal. He takes aspirin daily.Which is true?

  • AThe normal panel excludes a hemostatic defect, so the bleeding is purely surgical
  • BAspirin blocks the P2Y12 receptor, preventing ADP-mediated activation
  • CA prolonged aPTT would be expected if the defect were significant
  • DAspirin inhibits cyclooxygenase and thus thromboxane A2 production; qualitative platelet defects are invisible to the routine screening panel
  • EBleeding time should be measured, as it remains the standard test of platelet function
Answer

D

Cyclooxygenase inhibitors (aspirin, other NSAIDs) block thromboxane A2 production, and TxA2 stimulates platelets. The key teaching point is that qualitative defects give a completely normal screening panel — the count is normal because the platelets are all present, and PT/aPTT are normal because the factors are intact. You need a platelet function analyzer to see it. B describes clopidogrel and ticlopidine, not aspirin. E is wrong: bleeding time is not done anymore — difficult and not reproducible.

50Two patients have lifelong mucocutaneous bleeding. Patient 1: normal platelet count and size, no aggregation to ADP, collagen, or epinephrine, but normal ristocetin response. Patient 2: giant platelets with mild thrombocytopenia, absent aggregation to ristocetin.Which interpretation is correct?

  • APatient 1 has Bernard-Soulier syndrome; Patient 2 has Glanzmann thrombasthenia
  • BPatient 1 lacks GPIIb-IIIa and cannot aggregate; Patient 2 lacks GP1b and cannot adhere
  • CBoth lack the platelet vWF receptor, differing in severity
  • DPatient 1 has storage pool disease; Patient 2 has von Willebrand disease
  • EBoth are autosomal dominant, and carriers are symptomatic
Answer

B

Match the agonist to the receptor. Ristocetin tests vWF binding to GP1b — the adhesion receptor — so absent ristocetin aggregation plus giant platelets and mild thrombocytopenia is Bernard-Soulier (GP1BA/GP1BB). ADP, collagen, and epinephrine all converge on GPIIb-IIIa and fibrinogen cross-linking — the aggregation step — so failure to those with preserved ristocetin response is Glanzmann thrombasthenia (ITGA2B/ITGB3), the most common inherited platelet function disorder. E is wrong: both are autosomal recessive with asymptomatic carriers.

51A hospitalized, poorly nourished patient on broad-spectrum antibiotics has a PT of 19 seconds (INR 1.7) with a normal aPTT and a normal platelet count.Which best explains the isolated PT prolongation?

  • AVitamin K deficiency, and factor 7 has the shortest half-life of the vitamin K–dependent factors
  • BVitamin K deficiency, and factor 7 is the only vitamin K–dependent factor
  • CAn acquired factor 8 inhibitor
  • DConsumption of fibrinogen by intravascular thrombin
  • EHeparin contamination of the specimen
Answer

A

Malnutrition plus decreased gut flora is the classic setup, and PT increases first because of the short half-life of factor 7. All four vitamin K–dependent factors (2, 7, 9, 10) require gamma-carboxylation and all will fall, but F7 falls fastest and is the only one of them read by the PT — so B is wrong on the facts even though it reaches the right diagnosis. Treatment is vitamin K, with response in 24–48 hours; urgent reversal in a bleeding patient uses FFP (all factors) or PCC (the four vitamin K–dependent factors). C and E would prolong the aPTT.

52A woman with menorrhagia and easy bruising has a normal platelet count, a normal aPTT, vWF activity (ristocetin cofactor) of 22%, and a vWF antigen of 78%.What does the antigen–activity discrepancy indicate?

  • AType 1 vWD, since antigen and activity both fall in quantitative disease
  • BType 3 vWD, since the activity is markedly reduced
  • CType 2 vWD — a qualitative defect, with structurally abnormal vWF present in adequate amount but unable to function
  • DHemophilia A, since vWF stabilizes factor 8
  • EAn acquired vWF inhibitor, since a normal aPTT excludes inherited disease
Answer

C

Antigen measures how much protein is there; activity measures whether it works. In Types 1 and 3 the problem is quantity — what is present functions normally, so antigen and activity fall together. In Type 2 the problem is quality — mostly missense mutations causing defective multimer assembly, producing abnormal vWF that cannot interact with GP1bα and F8 — so antigen exceeds activity, exactly as here. Type 2A is the most common variant, and the platelet count is normal except in type 2B. Note that vWF activity is low in all types; it is the discrepancy that localizes the defect.

53Two patients with vWD need coverage for surgery. Patient 1 has Type 1 disease with vWF activity of 30%. Patient 2 has Type 3 disease with essentially undetectable vWF.Which approach is correct?

  • ADDAVP for both, since it stimulates vWF synthesis
  • BFactor 8 concentrate alone for both, since F8 is the deficient factor
  • CAntifibrinolytics alone are sufficient in both
  • DPlatelet transfusion for both, since the defect is one of platelet adhesion
  • EDDAVP for Patient 1, since it releases stored vWF from endothelial Weibel-Palade bodies; VWF:F8 concentrate for Patient 2, who has nothing to release
Answer

E

DDAVP empties a depot; it does not create protein. It acts on vasopressin V2 receptors to release vWF from endothelial Weibel-Palade bodies, so it works in Type 1, where the vWF made is normal in function, just reduced in amount — and her slide adds the practical caveat to confirm it works in the individual patient. In Type 3 there is almost no vWF, or none that is secreted, so there is nothing to mobilize; replacement with VWF:F8 concentrate (or recombinant vWF) is required, as it is in Type 2. Antifibrinolytics (Amicar, tranexamic acid) block plasminogen→plasmin and are adjuncts, not primary therapy.

54A 22-year-old man with lifelong spontaneous hemarthroses has an aPTT of 68 seconds and a normal PT and platelet count. Mixing his plasma 1:1 with normal plasma normalizes the aPTT.Which is true?

  • ACorrection indicates an inhibitor, and the Bethesda titer should be measured
  • BCorrection indicates a factor deficiency; a specific F8 or F9 assay is needed, since hemophilia A and B are clinically indistinguishable
  • CThe normal PT excludes a clotting factor disorder
  • DHemarthrosis points to a platelet disorder rather than a factor deficiency
  • EHemophilia B is more common than hemophilia A, so factor 9 deficiency is most likely
Answer

B

Mixing study corrects = deficiency. Does not correct = inhibitor. Normal plasma supplies the missing factor, so the time normalizes; an antibody would inactivate the factor in the added plasma too and the aPTT would stay long (that is when the Bethesda titer applies, making A backwards). Both hemophilias are X-linked recessive and clinically indistinguishable, so specific factor assays are required. A is 1 in 5,000 males; B (“Christmas disease”) is 1 in 30,000, so E inverts the frequencies. And hemarthrosis is the factor-deficiency pattern — petechiae would suggest platelets.

55A patient with severe hemophilia A who has received many factor 8 concentrate exposures now bleeds despite full replacement dosing. His mixing study does not correct.Which treatment addresses the problem, and why?

  • ADDAVP, to release stored factor 8 from endothelial cells
  • BFresh frozen plasma, since it contains all clotting factors
  • CVitamin K, since factor 8 requires gamma-carboxylation
  • DRecombinant factor 7a, which activates X to Xa on the platelet surface and so enters the cascade downstream of the inhibited step
  • EPlasma exchange, which is the definitive therapy for all acquired inhibitors
Answer

D

A non-correcting mixing study identifies an F8 inhibitor — an alloantibody in a treated hemophiliac, or an autoantibody in an older patient without hemophilia; both bleed severely, and strength is graded by the Bethesda titer. Recombinant 7a (NovoSeven) is a bypassing agent: it activates X to Xa on the platelet surface, producing a “thrombin burst” from a point downstream of the blockade, so the antibody becomes irrelevant. Other options are large doses of F8 to overwhelm the inhibitor, or activated PCC. C is wrong on its premise — the vitamin K–dependent factors are 2, 7, 9, 10, not 8.

56A patient with gram-negative sepsis develops oozing from IV sites. Platelets 42,000, PT prolonged, aPTT prolonged, fibrinogen 90 mg/dL, D-dimer markedly elevated.Which best accounts for this combination?

  • AWidespread thrombin generation consuming platelets and factors, thrombin-induced conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin, and secondary fibrinolysis releasing degradation products
  • BAn IgG autoantibody against platelet glycoproteins
  • CDeficient gamma-carboxylation of factors 2, 7, 9, and 10
  • DFailure to cleave ultra-large vWF multimers
  • ESplenic sequestration of platelets with hypersplenism
Answer

A

DIC — a “consumption coagulopathy.” It is the one disorder in these lectures that moves every number, and each moves for a stated reason: platelets down (thrombin activation, destruction in the microvasculature, endotoxemia), PT up (decreased factor V), aPTT up (decreased V and VIII), fibrinogen down (thrombin-induced conversion to fibrin), D-dimer up (secondary lysis of intravascular fibrin). Management is treat the underlying disease, supportive care, serial labs, and transfusion of red cells, plasma, platelets, or cryoprecipitate if bleeding. D is TTP, where fibrinogen and the clotting times are normal.

57Which statement about the factor VIII–vWF complex is correct?

  • AFactor 8 is synthesized by hepatocytes, so liver disease is the leading cause of factor 8 deficiency
  • BvWF and factor 8 circulate independently, and their levels are unrelated
  • CFactor 8 is made by endothelial cells rather than hepatocytes, and because vWF stabilizes it, vWF deficiency produces a secondary decrease in factor 8
  • DFactor 8 stabilizes vWF, so factor 8 deficiency lowers vWF levels
  • EvWF is a clotting factor within the intrinsic pathway, which is why vWD prolongs the aPTT directly
Answer

C

F8 is produced by endothelial cells in the liver and elsewhere — NOT hepatocytes, making A a deliberate trap. F8 binds vWF with high affinity, so when vWF is normal all F8 circulates bound to it; unbound F8 is cleared rapidly. Since vWF stabilizes F8, the dependency runs vWF → F8, not the reverse (so D is inverted). That is also why E is wrong in its mechanism: vWF is not a cascade factor, so the aPTT in vWD is prolonged only indirectly, and only when F8 falls significantly — as in severe Type 3, which can produce hemarthrosis resembling hemophilia.

58 A patient receives a transfusion of packed red blood cells. Thirty minutes later she develops fever, chills, back pain, hypotension, and hemoglobinuria. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the immediate next step?

Answer

Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR) due to ABO incompatibility. Immediate next step: stop the transfusion. Then maintain urine output with IV fluids and diuretics; cardiovascular support in the ICU. Root cause is almost always patient misidentification.

59 A stable oncology patient on uncomplicated chemotherapy has a platelet count of 8,000/mm³ and is not actively bleeding. At what platelet count threshold does prophylactic transfusion become indicated?

Answer

10,000/mm³. Stable thrombocytopenic oncology patients on uncomplicated chemotherapy can tolerate counts of 5,000–10,000 without spontaneous bleeding, but 10,000 is the accepted prophylactic trigger. (Spontaneous bleeding is rare above 20,000.)

60 An immunosuppressed cancer patient receives a blood transfusion from a relative. Nine days later he develops fever, a diffuse rash spreading from the face and trunk, mucositis, hepatitis, and pancytopenia. What is the diagnosis and how is it prevented?

Answer

Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD). Donor T-lymphocytes proliferate and attack the immunosuppressed recipient; risk is higher with related donors. Prevention: irradiation of cellular blood products (crosslinks T-lymphocyte DNA). Irradiation is 100% effective. TA-GVHD is rare but nearly always fatal.

61 During a massive transfusion, a patient with DIC is found to have fibrinogen of 60 mg/dL. Which blood product is most appropriate, and which product should NOT be used to treat the fibrinogen deficiency?

Answer

Use cryoprecipitate (contains fibrinogen, F8, vWF, F13); target post-transfusion fibrinogen >100–150 mg/dL. Do NOT use cryoprecipitate as a substitute for specific factor concentrates in hemophilia A or vWD — it is a fibrinogen replacement product, not a hemophilia treatment.

62 A patient with TTP requires plasma exchange. Why is fresh frozen plasma used as the replacement fluid?

Answer

FFP contains functional ADAMTS-13. Plasma exchange removes the patient's anti-ADAMTS-13 antibodies (pathologic plasma) and replaces with FFP, simultaneously removing the antibody and replenishing the enzyme that cleaves ultra-large vWF multimers.

63 A patient receiving a platelet transfusion develops pruritus and urticaria but no fever. What type of transfusion reaction is this, and what is the mechanism?

Answer

Allergic reaction. Recipient IgE antibodies recognize an allergen contained in the transfused unit. No fever distinguishes it from febrile nonhemolytic reactions. Treatment: antihistamines. Anaphylactic reactions are rare but can occur in patients with IgA deficiency.

64 Why are platelets at higher risk of causing septic transfusion reactions compared to red blood cells?

Answer

Platelets are stored at room temperature (to maintain function), while RBCs are refrigerated at 4°C. Room temperature storage supports bacterial growth far more readily. Platelets are now tested or treated for bacterial contamination to reduce this risk.

65 An AB-positive patient needs an emergency RBC transfusion but AB blood is unavailable. In order, what are the next acceptable choices?

Answer

AB patients are universal recipients. If AB is unavailable: 1st alternative = A, 2nd = B, 3rd = O. For Rh, Rh-positive patients can receive Rh-positive or Rh-negative blood.

66 Why do ABO-incompatible transfusions cause immediate intravascular hemolysis, whereas Rh-incompatible transfusions typically cause a delayed extravascular reaction?

Answer

ABO antibodies (anti-A, anti-B) are preformed IgM — they exist without prior exposure and activate complement rapidly → C5b-9 MAC → immediate intravascular lysis. Rh antibodies (anti-D) are IgG, formed only after prior sensitization. IgG-coated cells are cleared extravascularly by splenic macrophages, causing a slower delayed hemolytic reaction.

67 A patient develops acute respiratory distress with hypoxemia requiring intubation during a plasma transfusion. Chest X-ray shows bilateral pulmonary infiltrates but no evidence of fluid overload. What is the diagnosis, and what is the underlying mechanism?

Answer

Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI). Donor granulocyte or HLA antibodies react with patient white blood cells → neutrophil activation → lung injury (non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema). Treatment is aggressive respiratory support in the ICU. Risk has decreased by restricting plasma donations to males and tested females.