PALM 820 · Mechanisms of Human Disease · MS2

Pathology

Lecture notes and self-test

One section per lecture, built from the slide content. Practice questions pool in a single mixed bank at the end, so nothing reveals which lecture a question came from.

Lecture 01 · Randall

Anemias of Diminished Production

Microcytic · Macrocytic · Normocytic

  1. Classify anemia by MCV, and read the marrow's response with the reticulocyte index
  2. Work the microcytic anemias apart using iron studies
  3. Separate folate from B12 deficiency in macrocytic anemia
  4. Recognize the normocytic production failures — renal, aplastic, parvovirus, myelophthisic

Foundations

Two numbers organize the entire lecture

Background on the cell itself: RBCs are biconcave to maximize surface area for rapid gas exchange, live 120 days, are anucleate, and run on glucose. Anemia is decreased RBC mass, most commonly assessed by hemoglobin (RBC count and hematocrit also measure mass), and it arises from either diminished production or increased destruction. Fewer RBCs → less hemoglobin → less oxygen, giving fatigue, dyspnea, lightheadedness and angina from hypoxia, plus pale skin and mucous membranes from the low hemoglobin itself.

Reticulocyte index — is the marrow trying?

Corrected reticulocyte count RI = % reticulocytes × (actual Hct / normal Hct)
  • RI >3 = appropriate marrow response — the marrow is working, so suspect destruction or loss.
  • RI <2 = inadequate response — a production problem, which is this entire lecture.

The reticulocyte production index (RPI) is more accurate when the patient is severely anemic or the reticulocyte percentage is very high, because it corrects for the extra maturation time of reticulocytes released prematurely into blood.

MCV — average RBC size, in fL

The classification that drives the differential Microcytic <80 · Normocytic 80–100 · Macrocytic >100
Why the correction in RI matters

The raw reticulocyte percentage is a fraction of total RBCs. In anemia the denominator shrinks, so the percentage looks falsely reassuring. Multiplying by actual/normal Hct converts it back into an absolute measure of output — which is why it is called the corrected count.

Microcytic · framework

Microcytic anemias are hemoglobin-synthesis failures

MCV <80 fL, characterized by decreased Hb production and therefore hypochromasia — the cells are pale as well as small.

Build a hemoglobin, and you get the differential Hemoglobin = heme + globin chains · heme = iron + protoporphyrin

A shortfall in any of those components gives a microcytic anemia, which is exactly why the list looks the way it does:

  • Iron deficiency anemia — not enough iron (the classic)
  • Anemia of chronic disease, late — iron is present but unavailable
  • Sideroblastic anemias — protoporphyrin synthesis fails
  • Thalassemias — globin chains fail
Scope note

On her Key Points slide, thalassemia is greyed out, as are hemolytic anemias and hemoglobinopathies under normocytic. Randall lists them so the framework is complete, but they belong to Tayal's lectures — now covered in sections 02 and 03 below.

Microcytic · IDA

Iron deficiency anemia

The most common anemia, and iron is the most common nutritional deficiency. Beyond the typical signs of anemia, look for koilonychia (spoon nails) and pica. Plummer-Vinson syndrome is the named triad: iron deficiency anemia + esophageal webs (dysphagia) + atrophic glossitis (beefy red tongue).

Iron in vivo

Consumed as heme (meat) and non-heme (vegetable) forms; enterocytes absorb the heme form more readily. Absorbed in the duodenum and transferred into blood via ferroportin. Transferrin carries it through the blood to liver and marrow for storage, and stored intracellular iron is bound to ferritin, which also prevents free radical formation.

Causes

Chronic bleeding, malnutrition, absorption disorders, and increased demand (pregnancy, which raises TIBC).

  • Breast-fed infants and toddlers — human milk is low in iron
  • Menorrhagia or gastric ulcers; colon cancer or polyps
  • Gastrectomy or duodenectomy — stomach acid normally keeps iron in the reduced ferrous Fe2+ state, which is better absorbed than oxidized ferric Fe3+; lose the acid or the duodenum and you lose absorption
  • Hookworm infection

Stages, in order

Sequence matters, because it explains the labs Ferritin depleted first and TIBC rises serum iron depleted next and % saturation falls anemia appears, normocytic early progresses to microcytic, hypochromic

TIBC is a measure of transferrin molecules in the blood; % saturation is the percentage of transferrin molecules carrying iron.

Labs

Microcytic hypochromic anemia · RDW · ferritin · TIBC · serum iron · % saturation · free erythrocyte protoporphyrin.

Treatment: replete iron, typically oral ferrous sulfate.

Why ↑ RDW is an early clue

RDW measures variation in cell size. As iron runs out, newly made cells are small while the older normal-sized population is still circulating — so the width of the distribution rises before the MCV has fully fallen. A high RDW with a still-normal MCV is early IDA.

Microcytic · ACD

Anemia of chronic disease

Anemia arising in chronic inflammatory states — chronic infections, cancer, autoimmune disorders. It is the most common anemia in hospitalized patients.

Mechanism Inflammation ↑ hepcidin (an acute phase reactant) binds ferroportin on intestinal cells and macrophages, and suppresses EPO production

Because ferroportin is the only exit door for iron, blocking it traps iron inside enterocytes and macrophages. Absorption and recycling continue, but nothing reaches the blood — so serum iron falls while stored iron piles up. Anemia starts normocytic, normochromic and becomes microcytic with time.

Labs

ferritin · TIBC · serum iron · /– % saturation · free erythrocyte protoporphyrin.

Treatment: treat the underlying condition; can consider exogenous EPO.

The high-ferritin, low-iron paradox

These are two different pools. Serum iron is iron in transit, and it falls because the export door is shut. Ferritin is storage protein inside macrophages, and it rises because that is exactly where the iron is stranded. The marrow can only use what reaches it through the blood, so the patient is iron-rich but marrow-starved — functional iron deficiency with full stores. This one number, ferritin, is what separates ACD from true IDA.

One point where her slide is more direct than most sources

Her slide lists "suppresses erythropoietin (EPO) production" as one of hepcidin's actions. Many texts instead attribute the blunted EPO response to the inflammatory cytokines generally (IL-6 and others) rather than to hepcidin itself, with hepcidin handling only the iron-trapping arm. Answer her slide as written — but know that the two effects are often described separately, in case a differently worded question turns up.

Microcytic · sideroblastic

Sideroblastic anemias

Here the defect is in the protoporphyrin half of heme, so iron arrives normally and then has nowhere to go — which makes this the microcytic anemia with an iron overload profile.

Causes

  • Congenital: X-linked, mutation in ALA synthase (ALAS, the rate-limiting step)
  • Alcoholism — toxic effect on mitochondria
  • Lead poisoning — inhibits ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase
  • Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency — B6 is the cofactor for ALAS. A side effect of isoniazid, and treatable with B6
  • Myelodysplastic neoplasms/syndromes

Morphology

  • Ringed sideroblasts — iron-laden mitochondria visible in immature erythroid precursors, in the marrow
  • Basophilic stippling — in circulating red cells, from aggregates of damaged ribosomal RNA

Labs

Typically microcytic, though the alcoholism and MDS-related forms can be normocytic or macrocytic. ferritin · TIBC · serum iron · % saturation — all four together mark an iron overload state.

Where the enzymes sit

ALA synthase is the first, rate-limiting, mitochondrial step (succinyl CoA + glycine, with B6). ALA dehydratase is the next step, in cytoplasm. Ferrochelatase is the last step, inserting Fe2+ into protoporphyrin to make heme. Lead hits the first and last of the enzymes in that chain — which is the detail most often asked.

Macrocytic

Macrocytic anemias

MCV >100 fL. The most common cause is megaloblastic anemia from folate or B12 deficiency, both of which cause impaired DNA synthesis. Other causes: alcoholism, liver disease, some medications, myelodysplastic neoplasms, and congenital causes such as Diamond-Blackfan anemia.

Why "megaloblastic" produces the cells it does

Impaired DNA synthesis delays nuclear maturation relative to the cytoplasm. The cytoplasm keeps growing while the nucleus lags, so the cells come out too big and immature-looking:

  • In erythroid precursors → megaloblastic anemia
  • In granulocytic precursors → hypersegmented neutrophils

Folate deficiency

Causes: decreased dietary intake (green vegetables, some fruit) — and critically, body stores are minimal, so deficiency develops quickly, in weeks to months. Alcohol use disorder contributes through decreased dietary variety. Also increased demand (pregnancy, or high cell turnover as in cancer or hemolytic anemias), and folate-antagonist medications.

Labs: hypersegmented neutrophils · glossitis · serum folate · homocysteine, raising thrombosis risk · normal methylmalonic acid.

B12 deficiency

Dietary deficiency is less common than folate deficiency because hepatic stores are large — so it takes years, and vegans are the dietary exception. The most common cause is pernicious anemia: intrinsic factor, made by gastric parietal cells, is required for B12 absorption in the small bowel, and PA is autoimmune destruction of parietal cells → intrinsic factor deficiency. Other causes: pancreatic insufficiency, terminal ileum damage or loss (Crohn disease), and Diphyllobothrium latum, the fish tapeworm.

Findings: hypersegmented neutrophils · glossitis · homocysteine · methylmalonic acid · neurologic symptoms, because B12 is required for fatty acid and myelin metabolism — dorsal column and lateral corticospinal tract degeneration, giving decreased proprioception and vibration sense and spastic paresis respectively.

Why MMA is the discriminator

B12 has two jobs. As methyl-B12 it runs methionine synthase in the folate/methionine cycle — the step folate shares — so losing either vitamin raises homocysteine and impairs DNA synthesis. But as adenosyl-B12 it also runs methylmalonyl-CoA mutase in the mitochondrion, a pathway folate has nothing to do with. Lose B12 and methylmalonyl-CoA backs up as methylmalonic acid. That is the one branch folate cannot mimic, which is why MMA is normal in folate deficiency and elevated in B12 deficiency — and it is the same abnormal pathway implicated in the neurologic damage.

Highest-yield trap in the lecture

The hematologic pictures are identical — same macrocytosis, same hypersegmented neutrophils, same glossitis, same high homocysteine. Only two things separate them: MMA and neurologic symptoms, both present in B12 and absent in folate.

Normocytic

Normocytic anemias of diminished production

Normocytic anemias are classically split into hemolytic and non-hemolytic. Acute blood loss is a common normocytic cause, and early IDA and early ACD live here too before they turn microcytic. The production failures:

  • Renal failuredecreased EPO production
  • Aplastic anemia — see below
  • Parvovirus B19infects erythroid precursors and inhibits erythropoiesis. Especially important in patients with underlying marrow stress, such as sickle cell anemia or post-HSCT patients, where losing production for even a short time causes an abrupt crash
  • Myelophthisic processesreplacement of the marrow space by something else, usually metastatic cancer. Often pancytopenia, and the peripheral smear can show marrow elements not normally in blood: nucleated red blood cells and neutrophil precursors

Aplastic anemia

Damage to stem cells by medications, infections, or autoimmune/abnormal T-cell activity; some cases idiopathic. The marrow space is void of hematopoietic elements — replaced by fat — producing pancytopenia. Treatment: discontinue causative medications, supportive care, and HSCT in some cases.

Aplastic versus myelophthisic

Both give pancytopenia, and both are marrow-space problems — but the marrow looks opposite. Aplastic marrow is empty, and the smear is unremarkable apart from low counts. Myelophthisic marrow is crowded out by something, and the smear shows nucleated RBCs and immature granulocytes squeezed into circulation. That smear finding is the discriminator.

Why parvovirus matters more in sickle cell

A normal RBC lives 120 days, so shutting down production for a week or two barely dents the hemoglobin. In sickle cell disease, red cells survive only days, and the patient depends on continuously high output to stay compensated. Remove production and the hemoglobin falls almost immediately — an aplastic crisis.

Key points

The three tables to have memorized

Iron studies

FerritinTIBCSerum iron% saturation
IDA
ACD↓ / –
Sideroblastic
Pregnancy

Read it as two questions. Ferritin splits IDA (low stores) from everything else (adequate or high stores). Then serum iron and % saturation split ACD (iron trapped, so low) from sideroblastic (iron unusable, so it accumulates — high).

Folate versus B12

Folate deficiencyB12 deficiency
Most common causePoor dietary intake (low body stores)Pernicious anemia — vegans are the dietary exception
Homocysteine
Methylmalonic acidNormal
Neurologic symptomsNoYes

The MCV map

Microcytic <80Normocytic 80–100Macrocytic >100
Iron deficiency anemia
Anemia of chronic disease
Sideroblastic anemias
  lead poisoning
  vitamin B6 deficiency
Thalassemia
Acute blood loss
IDA (early)
ACD (early)
Aplastic anemia
  Parvovirus
Myelophthisic process
Hemolytic anemias
Hemoglobinopathies
Megaloblastic anemia
  folate deficiency
  B12 deficiency
Alcohol, meds, MDS

Grey entries are listed for completeness but belong to another lecture.

Highest yield

Six things to carry out of this lecture

  1. RI <2 means the marrow is the problem; RI >3 means destruction or loss. That single number decides which half of anemia you are in.
  2. Ferritin separates IDA from ACD. Both have low serum iron; only IDA has low ferritin and high TIBC.
  3. Sideroblastic anemia is the microcytic anemia with iron overload — high ferritin, high serum iron, high % saturation — because the block is in protoporphyrin, not iron.
  4. Lead inhibits ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase; B6 is the cofactor for ALA synthase (so isoniazid can cause it, and B6 treats it). Look for basophilic stippling on smear and ringed sideroblasts in marrow.
  5. MMA and neurologic findings are the only things separating B12 from folate. Both raise homocysteine; only B12 raises MMA and hits the dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts.
  6. Pancytopenia: empty marrow is aplastic, crowded marrow is myelophthisic — and nucleated RBCs with granulocyte precursors on the smear point to the latter.

Lecture 02 · Tayal

Hemolytic Anemias, Part 1

Definitions · Lab detection · Hereditary causes

  1. Normal red blood cell functions — and how each one predicts a way the cell can fail
  2. Hemolysis: definitions, classifications, and laboratory detection
  3. Hereditary hemolytic anemias — membrane, enzyme, and hemoglobin defects

Form follows function

What the normal red cell has to do

The core job is to enclose and transport hemoglobin — delivering O2 to tissues and carrying CO2 to the lungs. Enclosure matters on its own, because free hemoglobin is relatively toxic, particularly to the kidneys. Secondary roles: maintaining extracellular pH and electrolyte balance, delivering toxic compounds to liver and kidney, transporting hormones, and participating in immune responses.

The cell is deliberately simple — no nucleus, no mitochondria, no lysosomes, little enzyme activity. Energy comes from breaking glucose down to lactate or pyruvate through the glycolytic (Embden-Meyerhof) pathway, and that ATP is what maintains membrane integrity. ATP-depleted red cells are more susceptible to hemolysis.

Four design requirements

  • Volume — enclose the maximum amount of oxygen-binding hemoglobin
  • Shape — the biconcave disc is a compromise between storage volume and surface area for gas exchange
  • Deformability — to traverse small tortuous routes and heart valves, then recover shape
  • Durability — to survive 120 days
Why this list is the whole lecture in miniature

Each requirement maps onto a disease. Lose deformability and the spleen destroys you — hereditary spherocytosis. Lose enzyme capacity and oxidants destroy you — G6PD deficiency. Make an abnormal hemoglobin and polymerization destroys you — sickle cell. Make too little hemoglobin and unpaired chains destroy you — thalassemia. The cell has no nucleus and no mitochondria, so it cannot repair or adapt; whatever it was built with is all it gets for 120 days.

Where red cells come from, and the transfusion aside

Erythropoiesis is driven by EPO, moving through yolk sac (aorta-gonad-mesonephros) → liver and spleen → bone marrow. Under stress, extramedullary hematopoiesis can restart in spleen, liver, and lymph nodes. Transfused units are stored in glucose solutions, refrigerated, for up to 42 days — and undergo some hemolysis with storage as ATP is depleted, which is the same ATP-membrane link again.

Hemoglobin, briefly

2 pairs of globins (2 alpha, 2 beta in adults) plus 4 heme groups, each one atom of ferrous (2+) iron held by a porphyrin ring. Oxyhemoglobin is one ferrous iron plus one O2. Two terms to keep separate: a hemoglobinopathy is a mutation producing an abnormal globin (sickle cell), while a thalassemia is a mutation producing decreased synthesis of a normal globin.

Classifying hemolysis

Hemolysis and its three axes

Definition: destruction of red cells resulting in release of hemoglobin. Note what is not in that definition — anemia. Hemolysis may or may not cause anemia: if increased marrow production keeps up with the loss, it is compensated.

  • Rapid (acute) versus slow (chronic) — chronic hemolysis is easier to tolerate, because the marrow has time to compensate
  • Hereditary (intrinsic defects) versus acquired (antibodies)
  • Intravascular versus extravascular

Intravascular versus extravascular

ExtravascularIntravascular
FrequencyThe usual patternLess common
MechanismRBCs rendered less deformable, unable to pass splenic sinusoids, sequestered and phagocytosedMechanical or toxic injury; antibody/antigen reactions fixing complement (e.g. ABO-incompatible transfusion)
ResultAnemia, splenomegaly, jaundiceFree hemoglobin in plasma and urine
Her explicit instruction on this slide

Recognize mechanisms and examples, but do not try to classify every disorder into 1 of these categories.” Most processes have components of both. Learn the mechanism and the representative example; don't build a rigid two-column list and then fight over where PNH or G6PD belongs.

Immune versus non-immune

ImmuneNon-immune
Alloimmune (RBC alloantibodies)
  blood transfusion reaction
  hemolytic disease of the newborn

Autoimmune (RBC autoantibodies)
  warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
  cold agglutinin syndrome
  paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
  drug-related
Hereditary
  membrane defects — hereditary spherocytosis
  enzyme defects — G6PD, pyruvate kinase deficiency
  hemoglobinopathies — sickle cell disease
  thalassemias

Acquired
  paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (clonal)
  microangiopathic hemolysis
  mechanical (trauma)

The mnemonic split worth holding: allo = an antibody against a foreign antigen; auto = an antibody against your own antigens.

Laboratory detection

Proving hemolysis, then localizing it

Present in any hemolysis

  • Decreased hemoglobin / hematocrit
  • Increased reticulocyte count, with polychromasia on the smear — the marrow responding appropriately
  • Unconjugated (indirect) hyperbilirubinemia — heme is being catabolized faster than the liver conjugates it to glucuronide
  • Increased LDH

Added when hemolysis is intravascular

  • Decreased plasma haptoglobin — it binds free hemoglobin released from RBCs, and is consumed doing so
  • Increased free hemoglobinhemoglobinemia and hemoglobinuria
Why haptoglobin is the better localizer than LDH

LDH is cytoplasmic and abundant in red cells, so any destruction releases some — it proves turnover but not location. Haptoglobin depends on hemoglobin being free in plasma. In extravascular hemolysis the contents are degraded inside a macrophage, so haptoglobin is only modestly consumed; in intravascular hemolysis the cell lyses directly into blood and haptoglobin is exhausted. Same reasoning for hemoglobinuria, which requires free plasma hemoglobin to exceed haptoglobin's binding capacity.

The marrow side of the picture: erythroid hyperplasia, with increased erythroid precursors stimulated by EPO. Normoblasts are nucleated RBCs.

Infections that hemolyze red cells directly

  • Babesia species (e.g. B. microti) — dangerous in asplenic patients
  • Plasmodium species — especially falciparum malaria
  • Clostridium welchii — produces a hemolysin

Membrane defects

Hereditary spherocytosis

Red cells are fragile and less deformable, get trapped in the spleen, and survive only 10–20 days instead of 120. It is the common inherited anemia in northern Europeans (1 in 5,000), usually autosomal dominant (75%), with heterogeneous molecular defects.

The four-step membrane failure Normal membrane with vertical and horizontal skeletal proteins abnormal proteins weaken the membrane membrane and lipid bilayer are lost, forming a spherocyte the less deformable cell is trapped in the splenic cords

Molecular defects

  • Many defects are private — confined to a single family
  • Reading frame shifts and introduction of stop codons are the most common mutation types
  • Defects in ankyrin, spectrin, and band 4.2; ankyrin is most common
  • Protein electrophoresis shows reduced spectrin and reduced ankyrin

The CBC, and why the indices look the way they do

From her worked example: MCV 82.6 (normal), MCHC 36.5 high, RDW 16.5 high.

  • MCV: low to normal range — not frankly microcytic
  • MCHC increased from relative cell dehydration — the cell loses K+ and water, so the same amount of hemoglobin sits in a smaller volume
The index that actually flags HS

Reach for MCHC, not MCV. MCHC is a ratio, so the modest volume loss from dehydration moves it detectably above range. MCV is an absolute value with a wide 80–100 normal range, so the same volume loss usually leaves it inside that range — which is why HS is classified normocytic even though spherocytes look small and dense on a smear. Your eye reads shape and lost central pallor; the analyzer reads volume. ↑MCHC with ↑RDW is the pair.

Diagnosis and treatment

  • Spherocytes on smear — they lack central pallor, and are seen in HS and WAHA, so the finding alone does not establish a hereditary cause
  • Osmotic fragility test: incubate RBCs in NaCl solutions of decreasing concentration. Spherocytes are more sensitive to osmotic lysis and lyse sooner than normal RBCs — because a sphere has no spare membrane to expand into as water enters
  • Splenectomy is often helpful, increasing the lifespan of the abnormal RBCs. Afterward, expect Howell-Jolly bodies (remnants of DNA) on the smear, since no spleen remains to pit them out

Membrane defects, continued

Hereditary elliptocytosis and pyropoikilocytosis

  • Hereditary elliptocytosis — most commonly mutations in α-spectrin genes (SPTA1, SPTB), autosomal dominant, common in equatorial Africa because it confers resistance to malaria. Critically, the majority of patients are NOT anemic — elliptocytes are an incidental smear finding, and treatment is not necessary, since HE is uncommonly associated with hemolysis.
  • Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis — the severe form of HE, autosomal recessive, and it does cause hemolysis and anemia.
Why the inheritance pattern tracks severity here

The same principle recurs across these disorders: a dominant defect leaves one functioning allele, so enough normal protein is made to keep cells usable — abnormal shape, no meaningful hemolysis. A recessive defect knocks out both alleles, so the membrane skeleton genuinely fails. That is why AD elliptocytosis is an incidental finding while AR pyropoikilocytosis is a disease.

Enzyme defects

G6PD deficiency

An enzyme deficiency that renders the red cell vulnerable to oxidative injury. X-linked recessive, so clinically it appears in males. The abnormal G6PD protein misfolds and is degraded, which is why the deficiency worsens as cells age. Clinically relevant variants: G6PD A− in the African American population and G6PD Mediterranean in the Middle East. Like elliptocytosis, it may protect against Plasmodium falciparum.

Mechanism, in one line ↓ G6PD activity ↓ NADPH less conversion of oxidized to reduced glutathione cannot remove H2O2 denatured hemoglobin forms membrane-bound precipitates (Heinz bodies) membrane damage extravascular or intravascular hemolysis

Removal of H2O2 requires reduced glutathione and glutathione peroxidase, and the hexose monophosphate shunt is the red cell's only source of NADPH to regenerate that glutathione — hence a single enzyme gap collapses the whole antioxidant defense.

Triggers — hemolysis is intermittent and acute, not chronic

  • Drugs: antimalarials (primaquine, chloroquine), sulfonamides, nitrofurantoins
  • Foods: fava beans — “favism”
  • Viral and bacterial infections — free radicals generated by WBCs

Smear after oxidant exposure

  • Heinz bodies — precipitates of denatured globin, requiring supravital staining to see
  • Bite cellssplenic macrophages pick out these inclusions, taking a bite of membrane with them

Treatment is preventive: prevent exposure to oxidants. There is nothing to replace.

Timing is the diagnostic clue

G6PD deficiency is episodic. Between exposures the patient is hematologically normal, and enzyme assays can even be falsely normal right after an attack, because the oldest, most deficient cells have already lysed and the surviving reticulocytes have higher activity. A normal-looking patient with an abrupt hemolytic episode days after starting a sulfa drug or eating fava beans is the classic presentation.

Hemoglobinopathy

Sickle cell disease

A hereditary hemoglobinopathy from production of an abnormal hemoglobin, and it is common — 8% of African Americans carry the sickle cell mutation.

The mutation, precisely Point mutation in the 6th codon of the β-globin gene glutamate (glutamic acid) replaced by valine
  • Sickle cell DISEASE = homozygous; sickle cell TRAIT = heterozygous
  • Other β-globin chain disorders include HbC and HbE
  • HbS = α2βS2 = α2β2Glu→Val. The change in protein charge alters electrophoretic mobility, which is what makes hemoglobin electrophoresis diagnostic — SS = disease, AS = trait, AA = normal

Pathophysiology — a self-amplifying cycle

From her figure Deoxygenation HbS polymerizes to insoluble hemoglobin cell sickles, loses K+ and H2O and gains Ca2+ dehydration and membrane damage further cycles of deoxygenation, prolonged transit times irreversibly sickled cells → hemolysis, and microvascular occlusion
Why the cycle accelerates itself

Sickling drives out potassium and water, so the cell dehydrates — raising its MCHC. A higher intracellular hemoglobin concentration makes polymerization more likely on the next deoxygenation. So each sickling event makes the next one easier, until the damage is permanent. This is exactly why one of her treatment goals is to avoid dehydration, which decreases MCHC, and why slow transit through the microvasculature is so dangerous — more time deoxygenated means more polymer.

Diagnosis

  • Clinical presentation and family history
  • Blood smear: DISEASE shows sickle cells; TRAIT shows normal-appearing red cells. Also polychromatic RBCs, target cells, anisocytosis (variation in size), poikilocytosis (variation in shape), and Howell-Jolly bodies with irreversibly sickled cells
  • Sickling test — mix blood with an O2-consuming reagent to promote sickling
  • Hemoglobin electrophoresis or HPLC; DNA testing for prenatal diagnosis; newborn screening in all states

The spleen, in two stages

  • Splenic sequestration crisis — a potentially life-threatening complication: sudden enlargement of the spleen from trapping of RBCs, with a rapid drop in Hb/Hct, hypovolemia and circulatory collapse. The spleen is congested and sinuses dilated with RBCs
  • Autoinfarction / autosplenectomy — the spleen becomes small, shrunken, fibrotic, non-functional, leaving the patient susceptible to encapsulated organisms: pneumococci and Haemophilus influenzae

Cerebral infarction is monitored by transcranial Doppler measurement of cerebral blood flow, with a treatment goal of reducing HbS below 30% by transfusion.

Treatment — every goal reduces sickling

GoalHow
Increase HbFHydroxyurea; newborns are naturally protected by high HbF
Reduce HbS %Periodic transfusion to keep HbS <30%; exchange transfusion for severe crises
Reduce HbS per cellAvoid dehydration, which decreases MCHC
OtherReduce inflammation (decrease WBC); maintain intracellular pH, since acidosis promotes sickling

HbF works because it contains no β chains at all, so it cannot participate in HbS polymer — it dilutes the polymerizing species rather than blocking it.

Shared complications

What chronic hemolysis costs, regardless of cause

These apply across hemolytic diseases, HS and SCD included:

  • Marrow expansion — to keep up with RBC demand
  • Iron overload — especially in chronically transfused patients; oral iron chelators are used in sickle cell disease and severe thalassemia
  • Gallstonesbilirubin (pigment) stones, from the chronic unconjugated bilirubin load
  • Aplastic crisis — from viral infection, specifically Parvovirus B19 (fifth disease), causing a rapid and life-threatening drop in Hb/Hct. Marrow shows giant pronormoblasts and pure red cell aplasia
Why parvovirus is catastrophic here but trivial in a normal host

Parvovirus B19 infects erythroid precursors and shuts down erythropoiesis for a week or two. With a 120-day red cell lifespan, a normal person barely registers it. In HS the cells last 10–20 days, and in SCD not much longer — those patients are only compensated because the marrow is running at maximum output continuously. Remove production from a system with short cell survival and the hemoglobin falls almost immediately. Short lifespan is the vulnerability.

Lecture 03 · Tayal

Hemolytic Anemias, Part 2

Thalassemias · PNH · Immune · Microangiopathic

  1. Hereditary hemolytic anemias, continued — the thalassemia syndromes
  2. Acquired hemolytic disorders — PNH, immune-mediated, microangiopathic, and mechanical

Thalassemia · framework

Thalassemia syndromes

Heterogeneous genetic disorders resulting in decreased synthesis of adult hemoglobin (HbA, α2β2) — either the α chains (α-thal) or the β chains (β-thal). Two consequences follow, and both matter:

  • Hypochromia from reduced HbA — there simply isn't enough hemoglobin
  • Relative excess of unpaired globin chains can harm RBCs — and this is the arm that actually drives the disease severity

Gene dosage explains why the two behave differently: a pair of α-globin genes on chromosome 16 gives 4 genes total, while a single β-globin gene on chromosome 11 gives 2 genes total.

Laboratory testing — alpha and beta alike

  • RBC count increased — “lots of small cells”
  • MCV decreasedthink thalassemia if MCV <67 fL
  • MCH and MCHC decreased
  • Normal RDW
  • Smear: hypochromic microcytic RBCs and target cells
  • Electrophoresis: increased HbA2 in β-thal trait and β-thal intermedia, but NOT in α-thal
Highest-yield discriminator: thalassemia versus iron deficiency

Both are microcytic and hypochromic, and this is the classic confusion. Two numbers separate them cleanly:

RDW. Thalassemia gives a normal RDW, because every cell is uniformly small — the genetic defect is present in all of them from the start. IDA gives a high RDW, because normal cells made before the iron ran out still circulate alongside the new small ones.

RBC count. Increased in thalassemia — the marrow makes plenty of cells, they're just underfilled. Decreased in IDA. And an MCV below 67 is lower than iron deficiency usually goes. Her β-thal minor slide makes the practical point directly: exclude iron deficiency.

Thalassemia · beta

β-thalassemias

Molecular basis: mutations — usually point mutations, in contrast to the deletions of α-thal — that decrease β-globin synthesis.

Genotypeβ-globin outputMost common mutation typeWhy
β0 “zero”NoneChain terminator mutationsA premature stop codon (nonsense or frameshift) halts translation; the truncated globin is degraded. All-or-nothing mutation, all-or-nothing output
β+ “plus”ReducedSplicing mutationsSplicing is competitive — a weakened or alternative splice site is used most of the time, but the correct site is still used some of the time, so a minority of normal mRNA survives

Clinical severity is heterogeneous, and it tracks the amount of β chain made: cells are hypochromic and microcytic with reduced O2 carrying capacity, and free α chains precipitate, causing RBC membrane damage and extravascular hemolysis.

Pathogenesis of β-thalassemia major (Cooley's anemia)

Two destructive arms from one defect Reduced β-globin synthesis with relative excess of α-globin insoluble α-globin aggregates in the erythroblast [1] ineffective erythropoiesis — most erythroblasts die in the bone marrow  ·  [2] the few abnormal cells that do leave are hypochromic and aggregate-containing, and undergo extravascular hemolysis in the spleen

Both arms converge on anemia, which then branches again:

  • Anemia tissue hypoxia ↑ erythropoietin marrow expansion skeletal deformities — classically a skull radiograph with new bone formation on the outer table producing perpendicular radiations, the “crewcut” appearance
  • Ineffective erythropoiesis increased dietary iron absorption iron deposits in heart, liver, pancreas systemic iron overload (secondary hemochromatosis), demonstrated on a liver Prussian blue iron stain. Iron chelation therapy minimizes it
  • Blood transfusions reduce the anemia and therefore the marrow drive — but add their own iron burden
Why iron overload happens even without transfusion

This is the part worth understanding rather than memorizing. Ineffective erythropoiesis means the marrow is churning through precursors that die in place. That futile erythroid activity signals for more iron, so absorption is upregulated even though the patient's problem was never iron. Transfusions then add more. So a thalassemic patient ends up iron-overloaded from two independent directions — and unlike the anemia, the iron has no exit route, which is why chelation is a standing requirement.

Clinical spectrum

GenotypeClinical picture
Thalassemia major
(Cooley's)
Homozygous for the β-thal genesSevere anemia and the full pathophysiologic cascade above
Thalassemia intermediaHomozygous β+, plus various mildly behaving genotypesMild clinical anemia; may require transfusion later in life
Thalassemia minorHeterozygous β+ or β0Silent carriers or minimal effects. Borderline anemia (Hct ~35%) with microcytosis (MCV ~60 fL), a high RBC count, and increased HbA2 (4–8%). Smear: microcytic, hypochromic, target cells

Thalassemia · alpha

α-thalassemias

Reduced or absent α-globin chains, most commonly due to gene deletions — the key contrast with β-thal's point mutations. Because there are four α genes, severity is graded by how many are affected.

ConditionGenes deletedCharacteristics
Silent carrier1 (aa/a–)Clinically and hematologically normal
Thalassemia trait2 (–a/–a or ––/aa)Microcytosis, hypochromia, mild anemia
HbH disease3 (––/–a) — tetramers of excess β globinModerate to severe microcytic hypochromic hemolytic anemia, mild jaundice, moderate hepatosplenomegaly
Hb Bart hydrops fetalis syndrome4 (––/––) — tetramers of excess γ globin with high O2 affinitySevere anemia, generalized edema, ascites, marked hepatosplenomegaly, skeletal and cardiovascular malformations, usually death in utero
Why the tetramer identity changes with gene count

Without α chains, whatever non-α chain is most abundant pairs with itself. After birth that is β, giving β4 = HbH. In the fetus it is γ, giving γ4 = Hb Bart. And Hb Bart's high oxygen affinity is what makes it lethal — it binds oxygen and won't release it to tissues, so the fetus is hypoxic despite having hemoglobin. That is the mechanism behind hydrops: severe fetal anemia and hypoxia → high-output cardiac failure → total body edema.

Hemoglobin electrophoresis summary

HbA1 (α2β2)HbA2 (α2δ2)HbF (α2γ2)Other
Normal96–98.5%1.5–4%0–1%
β-thal minor / trait>85%3.5–8%1–7%
β-thal intermedia20–60%5–10%30–70%
β-thal major10–30%Trace70–90%
α-thal (HbH disease)β4 tetramers
α-thal (hydrops fetalis)γ4 tetramers

Note the one apparent oddity: HbA2 is trace in β-thal major but elevated in minor. HbA2 needs α chains too, and in major the massive HbF production dominates the percentages.

Acquired · clonal

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A rare acquired hematopoietic stem cell disease — a clonal disorder from somatic mutations affecting the RBC membrane. The specific defect is in the phosphatidylinositol glycan class A (PIG-A) gene, which is required to form the red cell anchor. The result: cells are more sensitive to complement-mediated lysis.

Pathogenesis PIGA mutated the GPI anchor is not formed proteins requiring that anchor cannot attach to the cell — CD14, CD16, CD24, CD55, CD56, CD58, CD59, acetylcholinesterase, blood antigens and others

The two that matter functionally: CD55 (decay accelerating factor) and CD59 (membrane inhibitor of reactive lysis, which inhibits C3 convertase). Both are complement brakes, so losing them leaves the cell defenseless against ongoing low-level complement activation.

Clinical triad

  • Chronic hemolytic anemia
  • Thrombosis — the most common cause of mortality
  • Pancytopenia — bone marrow failure

Diagnosis

  • Flow cytometry is the modern test: both RBCs and granulocytes normally express GPI-anchored proteins, and PNH cells show abnormal or absent CD55 and CD59. Alternatively, FLAER (fluorescent aerolysin), which binds the glycan portion of the GPI anchor itself rather than using antibodies
  • Historical tests — both work by making complement attack easier, and both are less specific than flow: the acidified serum (Ham) test, 1939, where acidified serum activates the alternative complement pathway (can be positive in congenital dyserythropoietic anemia), and the sucrose hemolysis test, 1970, where 10% sucrose provides low ionic strength promoting complement binding (can be positive in megaloblastic anemia and AIHA)

Marrow shows erythroid hyperplasia with numerous erythroid precursors. Treatment: marrow transplant, or anti-complement (C5) antibody — eculizumab — to reduce hemolysis. Median survival 10 years.

Note what PNH is not

Despite being a membrane defect causing hemolysis, PNH is acquired and clonal, not hereditary — it sits with the acquired disorders alongside microangiopathic and mechanical hemolysis. And the hemolysis is complement-mediated but not antibody-mediated, so the DAT is negative — it is a non-immune disorder despite involving complement.

Acquired · immune

Immune hemolytic anemias

The unifying mechanism: red cells coated with antibody and/or complement are removed from the circulation, in the spleen.

TypeAntibodyTemperatureSettings
Warm antibody typeIgG37°CPrimary (idiopathic), or secondary to autoimmune disease (SLE), drugs, lymphoma
Cold agglutinin typeIgM<37°CAcute (mycoplasma, infectious mononucleosis) or chronic (idiopathic, lymphoma)
Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuriaIgG<37°CRare; biphasic hemolysis

The Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT / Coombs)

Principle: detect antibody (IgG) and/or complement (C3) on the RBC surface by adding anti-human antibody and looking for agglutination. Its job is to distinguish immune from non-immune anemias — anemia plus a positive DAT points to an immune hemolytic anemia.

Why the DAT is the single most useful test in this section

Several disorders here produce spherocytes, and several produce hemolysis with no distinguishing morphology at all. The DAT cuts across all of it by asking one question: is there antibody or complement stuck to the cell? Positive with IgG → warm. Positive with complement only → cold agglutinin. Negative with spherocytes → hereditary spherocytosis, not WAHA. Negative with hemolysis and pancytopenia → think PNH.

Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAHA)

Defined as hemolytic anemia plus an RBC autoantibody, usually idiopathic.

  • Positive Coombs test
  • Spherocytes in peripheral blood — her slide calls them “microspherocytes”
  • The autoantibodies react with a wide range of self-antigens, so they destroy both the patient's own cells and any cells that are transfused — which is what makes transfusion support difficult
  • Treatment: corticosteroids (prednisone), rituximab (anti-CD20 B cell antibody), splenectomy

Spherocytes form here for the same mechanical reason as in HS: splenic macrophages remove part of the antibody-coated membrane, and the cell rounds up. Same shape, different cause — and the DAT is what separates them.

Cold agglutinin syndrome (CAS)

  • May cause a chronic autoimmune hemolytic anemia
  • Thermal amplitude of the antibody determines severity — symptoms appear in fingers, toes, and cold-exposed areas, where blood is coolest
  • Usually IgM, often directed against I or i antigens. The DAT detects complement on the RBCs — not IgG, because IgM elutes as blood rewarms while the complement it deposited stays behind
  • Infection-associated: Mycoplasma pneumoniae, infectious mononucleosis (EBV), CMV, influenza, HIV — this form is usually self-limited
  • Older adults with monoclonal gammopathies — plasma cell myeloma, lymphomas
Agglutinates versus rouleaux

Both look like red cells sticking together, and they mean different things. Red cell agglutinates are clumps from antigen/antibody reactions — cold agglutinin syndrome. Rouleaux are stacked-coin arrangements from increased monoclonal proteins (paraproteins) — plasma cell myeloma. And note: in WAHA the cells are NOT stuck together, because IgG does not agglutinate efficiently at body temperature. So clumping on a smear points cold, not warm.

Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)

  • Rare autoimmune syndrome causing massive intravascular hemolysis on cold exposure
  • IgG autoantibody against the P antigen — historically associated with syphilis, and now typically following viral infection in children
  • Biphasic hemolysin — the Donath-Landsteiner antibody: antibody and early complement components bind at low temperature, then terminal complement components form on warming and the cells lyse intravascularly
  • Donath-Landsteiner test: patient serum plus normal (P-positive) RBCs and fresh serum as a complement source; antibody binds cold, complement lyses on warming — giving red serum in the tube (hemolysis) and cola-colored urine (hemoglobinuria)
  • Treatment: self-limited; avoid cold; corticosteroids are not helpful — a deliberate contrast with WAHA
Why “biphasic” explains everything about PCH

Two temperatures are required, and that is the whole disease. Binding happens in cold peripheral blood; lysis happens when that blood returns to the warm core. Because the lytic step completes inside the vessel rather than in a splenic macrophage, PCH is one of the few genuinely intravascular immune hemolytic anemias — hence hemoglobinuria, and hence why splenectomy and steroids don't help.

Drug-related hemolytic anemia — three mechanisms

MechanismHow it worksAntibodyDrugs
Hapten / drug adsorptionDrug binds to an RBC membrane protein; antibody forms against the drug-membrane complexIgGPenicillin, cephalosporins, tetracycline
Immune complex (ternary complex)Antibody forms on exposure; further exposure causes the drug-antibody complex to adsorb to RBCsIgMQuinidine, quinine, chlorpropamide
Autoantibody formationTrue autoantibodies form on exposure to the drug, like those in WAHA; may show apparent specificity for Rh antigensIgGα-methyldopa, cephalosporins

Treatment includes identifying and stopping the offending drug — and note her emphasis that drugs can cause severe intravascular hemolysis. The distinction that matters: in the hapten and ternary-complex mechanisms the antibody needs the drug present, so hemolysis stops when the drug is withdrawn; in the autoantibody mechanism a true self-directed antibody has been created, which can persist.

Acquired · mechanical

Microangiopathic and mechanical hemolysis

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA)

Red cells are damaged on contact with dense fibrin strands, producing schistocytes — red cell fragments. Causes:

  • Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
  • Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
  • Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

Mechanical hemolysis (RBC trauma)

  • Artificial heart valves — tilting valve, ball-and-cage valve
  • March hematuria — hematuria after repetitive impact on the body, classically the feet
Why these are intravascular and give schistocytes rather than spherocytes

The mechanism is shearing, not phagocytosis. A cell dragged across a fibrin strand or a valve is physically cut, so it fragments and spills its contents into the bloodstream — giving schistocytes on the smear plus the intravascular lab pattern of markedly elevated LDH, very low haptoglobin, and hemoglobinuria. Compare spherocytes, which are made by a macrophage nibbling membrane in the spleen — a partial, extravascular process. Fragmented cell → think shear; rounded cell → think spleen.

Highest yield

Eight things to carry out of the hemolysis lectures

  1. Hemolysis is proven by ↑retic, ↑indirect bilirubin and ↑LDH; it is localized by haptoglobin. Low haptoglobin plus hemoglobinuria means intravascular.
  2. HS: ↑MCHC from cell dehydration, ↑RDW, MCV low-to-normal. Spherocytes lack central pallor and appear in both HS and WAHA — the DAT separates them.
  3. G6PD is episodic and X-linked. ↓NADPH → ↓reduced glutathione → Heinz bodies → bite cells. Triggers: primaquine, sulfonamides, fava beans, infection. Treatment is avoidance.
  4. Sickle cell is a point mutation at the 6th codon of β-globin, glutamate → valine. Deoxygenation polymerizes HbS; dehydration raises MCHC and makes it worse. Goals: ↑HbF (hydroxyurea), ↓HbS to <30%, avoid dehydration and acidosis.
  5. Thalassemia versus IDA: normal RDW and an increased RBC count mean thalassemia, along with MCV <67. HbA2 is raised in β-thal trait but not in α-thal.
  6. Chain terminator → β0; splicing → β+. Free α chains drive ineffective erythropoiesis, which drives both the marrow expansion (crewcut skull) and the increased iron absorption behind secondary hemochromatosis.
  7. α-thal is graded by gene count: 3 genes deleted = HbH (β4), 4 genes = Hb Bart (γ4, high O2 affinity) and hydrops fetalis.
  8. PNH: PIGA mutation → no GPI anchor → no CD55/CD59 → complement lysis. Triad of hemolysis, thrombosis (leading cause of death), and pancytopenia. Diagnose by flow cytometry; treat with eculizumab.

Lecture 04 · Tayal

Bleeding Disorders, Part 1

Vessel wall · Thrombocytopenia · ITP · HIT · TTP / HUS

  1. Vascular abnormalities that cause bleeding without thrombocytopenia
  2. Quantitative platelet disorders — decreased production and decreased survival
  3. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), chronic adult versus acute childhood
  4. Drug-induced thrombocytopenia, with HIT as the model
  5. HIV-associated, pregnancy-associated, and neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia
  6. Thrombotic microangiopathies — TTP and HUS

Objective 1 · vessel wall

Vessel wall abnormalities associated with bleeding

These are the “non-thrombocytopenic purpuras” — the vessel itself is leaky or fragile, so the patient bleeds while every screening test comes back normal.

The recognition pattern Petechiae and purpura + normal platelet count + normal PT and aPTT

Bleeding is variable and usually mild. Causes fall into recognizable buckets:

  • Infections — meningococcemia, Rickettsia
  • Drug reactions — vasculitis
  • Collagen disorders — scurvy, Ehlers-Danlos
  • Henoch-Schönlein purpura — immune complexes
  • Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
  • Amyloid infiltration of blood vessels
Why the labs are normal

Hemostasis has three arms: the vessel, the platelet, and the clotting factors. Platelet count measures the second; PT and aPTT measure the third. Nothing in the routine panel tests the vessel wall. So a patient who bleeds with a completely clean coagulation workup should push you toward vascular disease, not toward a subtler factor problem.

Objective 2 · platelet basics

What platelets are, and what happens as the count falls

Platelets are small cell fragments derived from megakaryocytes, which expand and differentiate over several days in response to thrombopoietin (TPO). Their two jobs:

  • Provide the surface on which coagulation factors assemble — this is why platelets and the cascade are not really separable systems
  • Prevent bleeding
Her four-way framing — count and function both matter Too few → bleed (or clot, if the platelets are activated) · Too many → clot (or bleed, if the platelets don't work)

Platelet count and clinical consequence

Normal count is 150–450 K/µL.

Count (K/µL)What you see
50–100Nothing
30–50Bruising with minor trauma
10–30Spontaneous bruising, menorrhagia
<10Spontaneous bleeds — gums, gut, nosebleeds
Exam trap

A platelet count of 60,000 is asymptomatic. Do not attach bleeding to a number just because it is below the reference range — the threshold where spontaneous bleeding begins is roughly 10,000, and the therapeutic decisions in this lecture are built around that.

Objective 2 · non-immune causes

Splenic sequestration and dilutional thrombocytopenia

Splenic sequestration (splenomegaly)

Very common. The spleen enlarges from increased cells/tissue or vascular engorgement, and pools platelets out of the circulation. Associated with:

  • Infiltration by leukemia or lymphoma
  • Chronic liver disease
  • Congestive heart failure

Dilutional thrombocytopenia

Trauma and complicated surgery. Platelets are simply diluted by the saline, red cells, and plasma being infused. Treatment is to transfuse platelets if the count is low enough to affect hemostasis.

Why these are the ones to think of first

Neither involves platelet destruction or an antibody — the platelets are normal, just in the wrong place or outnumbered. That makes them the mechanically simplest explanations for a low count, and sequestration in particular is common enough that it belongs at the top of any differential.

Objective 3 · ITP

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura — adult chronic

An autoimmune disorder manifesting as immune-mediated thrombocytopenia. Autoantibodies (IgG) recognize one or more platelet surface glycoproteins — GPIIb-IIIa, GPIb-IX, others — and are detectable in 50–80% of patients.

Mechanism IgG coats platelet glycoprotein macrophage removal thrombocytopenia

She points at the analogy directly: this is the same situation as warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAHA), just with platelets as the target instead of red cells.

Clinical features

  • Most common cause of isolated thrombocytopenia in an otherwise healthy patient
  • Any age or sex, but typically young women under 40
  • Splenomegaly and intracerebral bleeds are NOT common
  • Signs track the count — petechiae (pinpoint hemorrhages) and ecchymoses (bruises)

Laboratory features

ITP is a diagnosis of exclusion.

  • CBC and smear: isolated thrombocytopenia with large platelets
  • PT and aPTT are normal — clotting factor activity is intact
  • No sensitive and specific test exists. Antiplatelet-antibody assays exist but do not make the diagnosis
  • Check for HIV and hepatitis C — both cause thrombocytopenia
  • Marrow, when examined, shows increased megakaryocytes, and mainly serves to exclude infiltration, leukemia, lymphoma, and MDS
Why the platelets are large and the marrow is busy

The problem is peripheral destruction, not production. The marrow responds by ramping up — hence increased megakaryocytes — and the platelets it releases are young, and young platelets are large. Large platelets plus a hypercellular megakaryocyte compartment is the signature of a destructive thrombocytopenia; small platelets and an empty marrow would point to a production failure instead.

Objective 3 · treatment

Treating chronic ITP in adults

Options scale with severity, and they sort cleanly by mechanism:

StrategyAgentsWhat it does
ObservationAppropriate when the count is safe
Immune suppressionCorticosteroids (prednisone, dexamethasone); rituximab (anti-CD20, anti-B cell)Reduce autoantibody production
Fc receptor blockadeIVIG; anti-D (WinRho) if Rh(D) positiveSaturates Fc receptors in the reticuloendothelial system, so coated platelets survive longer
SplenectomyRemoves the site of destruction → increased platelet survival
Increase productionTPO receptor agonists — eltrombopag, romiplostimDrive megakaryocyte output
Highest-yield rule on this slide

There is no role for prophylactic platelet transfusion in ITP — even with ZERO platelets, in a non-bleeding patient. The reason is mechanistic: the autoantibody will coat and destroy transfused platelets exactly as fast as it destroys the patient's own. You are feeding the same machine. Transfusion is reserved for active, serious bleeding.

Acute immune thrombocytopenia in children

Clinically a different disease from the adult chronic form:

  • Abrupt onset, usually following a viral illness
  • Usually does NOT require steroids — observation
  • Spontaneous and permanent remission, in contrast with adults, who often have chronic disease with relapses

Objective 4 · HIT

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

A life-threatening complication of heparin exposure, and common1% to 5% of exposed patients. Caused by an antibody against a complex of heparin and platelet factor 4 (PF4).

The number that conveys the stakes ~1/3 of HIT patients develop thrombosis of those, 1/3 will be amputated or die

Pathophysiology — her four-step sequence

1 Heparin exposure → IgG antibodies against heparin-PF4 complexes
2 HIT antibody binds the platelet FcγRIIa receptorplatelet activation
3 Platelets release procoagulant microparticles that promote thrombosis — including THROMBIN
4 Thrombocytopenia as platelets are consumed and antibody-coated platelets are destroyed
Why HIT clots instead of bleeding

Every other cause of thrombocytopenia in this lecture drops the count by removing platelets. HIT drops it by activating them first. Activation is the whole point — step 2 comes before step 4. So the falling count is a marker of consumption, not a bleeding risk, and the clinical danger is thrombosis. This is why the count matters less than the timing and the thrombotic events.

Type I versus Type II HIT

Type I — non-immuneType II — immune
SeverityMild (100,000–150,000/mm3)Severe (<100,000/mm3)
OnsetRapid, 1–2 daysDelayed, 5–10 days
CourseResolves despite continuing heparinPersists until heparin is stopped
ThrombosisNOThromboembolic complications
MechanismNon-immuneImmune (heparin-PF4 IgG)

The “4 Ts” score

A clinical pretest probability score. Each of four features earns 2, 1, or 0 points:

4 Ts2 points1 point0 points
ThrombocytopeniaFall >50% and nadir >20Fall 30–50% or nadir 10–19Fall <30%
Timing of the fallOnset days 5–10, or fall <1 day with recent exposureConsistent with days 5–10 but unclear; onset after day 10Fall <4 days without recent exposure
Thrombosis or sequelaeNew thrombosis; skin necrosisProgressive or recurrent thrombosis; non-necrotic skin lesions; unproven thrombosisNone
oTher causesNone apparentPossibleDefinite

Laboratory testing — two categories

  • Immunoassays detect the antibody — they use antibodies to find the anti-heparin-PF4 antibodies in the patient's blood
  • Functional tests detect platelet activation — the serotonin release assay is the classic

Treatment

Three rules, all counterintuitive

1. Stop all heparin — drips and flushes. But this is NOT ENOUGH.

2. Start a non-heparin anticoagulant. Direct thrombin inhibitors (argatroban, bivalirudin) neutralize the excess thrombin already generated. Removing the trigger does not undo the thrombin burst that has already happened.

3. Avoid platelet transfusions — they may increase the risk of thrombosis. You would be adding substrate to an actively prothrombotic state.

Objective 4 · other drugs

Other drug-induced thrombocytopenias

  • Immune mechanism — antibodies react with platelet membrane glycoproteins only when the drug is present, leading to platelet removal. Quinine, quinidine, sulfonamide antibiotics.
  • Non-immune mechanism — marrow failure from a direct toxic effect on the bone marrow. Many drugs; the most common are chemotherapeutic agents.
Cross-reference worth making

Quinine and quinidine also appeared in the immune hemolytic anemia lecture as the ternary complex drugs. Same immunologic trick, different cell: the drug-dependent antibody needs the drug present to bind. If you have the mechanism for one, you have it for the other.

Objective 5 · HIV and pregnancy

HIV-associated and pregnancy-associated thrombocytopenia

HIV

Common in HIV disease, and multifactorial:

  • Decreased production — HIV infects megakaryocytes directly
  • HIV-associated ITP — increased destruction through immune-mediated thrombocytopenia, with GPIIb-IIIa autoantibodies
  • Responds to antiretroviral therapy — treat the virus and the count often recovers

Pregnancy

  • Gestational thrombocytopenia — incidental, mild, no specific cause, resolves after delivery
  • Other causes: severe preeclampsia / HELLP, DIC, thrombotic microangiopathies
  • ITP in pregnancy — roughly a 10-fold greater risk than the general population. Occurs in any trimester, severity varies, and counts change over the pregnancy. Transplacental passage of maternal autoantibody can cause fetal/neonatal thrombocytopenia in ~25%. Most pregnancies are uneventful.

Objective 5 · NAIT

Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (NAT)

Caused by platelet alloantibodies the mother develops against foreign fetal platelet antigens — the HPA-1a antibody is the classic.

Mechanism Mother HPA-1a negative fetal HPA-1a positive platelets maternal IgG crosses placenta binds fetal platelets
  • Detected in the lab by ELISA
  • The mother has a normal platelet count — the antibody is against an antigen she does not have
  • The FIRST child is often affectedcontrast Rh disease of the newborn, where it is the second pregnancy
  • May present as newborn bleeding or intracranial bleed
  • Treatment: IVIG ± corticosteroids, and platelet transfusion
  • Subsequent pregnancies are high-risk
The two discriminators tested here

Mother's platelet count. Normal in NAIT (allo-antibody, she has no HPA-1a to attack). Low in maternal ITP (auto-antibody attacks her platelets too). This single number separates the two causes of neonatal thrombocytopenia.

Which pregnancy. NAIT can hit the first; Rh disease needs a prior sensitizing pregnancy. Do not import the Rh timing into the platelet disease.

Objective 6 · TTP

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

A thrombotic microangiopathy — excessive platelet activation forming thrombi in small blood vessels. TTP is a medical EMERGENCY, and the defining paradox is that patients CLOT despite being thrombocytopenic.

Classic pentad Thrombocytopenia · MAHA · Renal dysfunction · Neurologic disturbances · Fever

Pathogenesis

The chain to know cold No ADAMTS13 ultra-large vWF multimers not cleaved platelet activation & aggregation in the microcirculation microthrombi RBC shearing + platelet consumption
  • ADAMTS13 is the metalloprotease that cleaves vWF. Without its activity, sticky ultra-large vWF multimers persist
  • Acquired TTP — an IgG autoantibody against ADAMTS13. This is the usual form
  • Rare inherited patients exist with a mutation that inactivates ADAMTS13

Laboratory findings

  • Thrombocytopenia — counts are variable
  • MAHA — anemia with schistocytes, reticulocytosis ± nucleated RBCs, increased LDH, unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
  • Renal dysfunction — usually only a mild creatinine rise
  • PT and aPTT are usually NORMAL unless DIC develops
  • ADAMTS13 activity assay

Schistocytes are RBC fragments formed when red cells come into contact with dense fibrin meshworks.

The single most testable contrast in this lecture

TTP: PT and aPTT NORMAL. DIC: both PROLONGED. Both give thrombocytopenia, schistocytes, and microvascular thrombi, so the smear will not separate them. The difference is what is being consumed. TTP consumes platelets on vWF strands; the clotting factors are untouched, so PT and aPTT stay normal. DIC activates the cascade itself and consumes factors and fibrinogen along with platelets, so PT and aPTT both rise and fibrinogen falls.

Treatment

Therapeutic plasma exchange (apheresis) — one procedure, two jobs Removes the autoantibody + provides ADAMTS13
  • Corticosteroids and rituximab (anti-CD20) — decrease autoantibody production
  • Caplacizumab — an anti-vWF immunoglobulin
  • Splenectomy — increases platelet survival
  • Platelet transfusion may be contraindicated

Drug-induced thrombotic microangiopathy is immune-mediated like TTP — quinine, ticlopidine, clopidogrel.

Why plasma exchange rather than plasma infusion

Infusing plasma would supply ADAMTS13 but leave the autoantibody in place to neutralize it. Exchange removes the patient's plasma — carrying away both the antibody and the accumulated ultra-large multimers — and replaces it with donor plasma containing functioning enzyme. It attacks the cause and the toxic product simultaneously, which is why it is the emergency intervention rather than an adjunct.

Objective 6 · HUS

Hemolytic uremic syndrome

“Typical” HUS

  • MAHA and thrombocytopenia — same microangiopathic picture as TTP
  • Prominent acute renal failure — this is the discriminator
  • Neurologic symptoms less common than in TTP
  • More frequent in children, who often recover
  • NORMAL levels of ADAMTS13
  • Most often from food contaminated with enterohemorrhagic E. coli producing Shiga-like toxins that disrupt endothelium → platelet activation
  • NOT treated by plasma exchange — no specific therapy

“Atypical” HUS (aHUS)

  • Non-infective cause of HUS
  • Inherited (mutations in complement component genes) or sporadic
  • Chronic and recurring, with >50% developing end-stage renal failure; early mortality 10–25%
  • Caused by excessive complement activation
  • Responds to complement inhibitors — eculizumab
Why the treatments diverge from TTP

All three are microangiopathies with schistocytes and low platelets, but the upstream lesion differs, and treatment follows the lesion. TTP — missing enzyme plus autoantibody → plasma exchange. Typical HUS — a toxin that has already injured endothelium and is gone → nothing to exchange away, hence supportive care only. aHUS — unregulated complementblock complement. Same smear, three different targets.

Cross-lecture connection

Eculizumab also treats PNH from Hemolytic Part 2 — and for the identical reason. PNH cells lack CD55 and CD59, so complement is unopposed; aHUS has too much complement activation. Both problems are solved by inhibiting complement.

Highest yield

Six things to carry out of this lecture

  1. Thrombocytopenia is either decreased production or decreased survival, and decreased survival happens by immune and non-immune mechanisms. Every disease in this lecture slots into that grid.
  2. Normal platelet count + normal PT/aPTT + purpura = vessel wall disease. Nothing in the routine panel tests the vessel.
  3. ITP is a diagnosis of exclusion — isolated thrombocytopenia, large platelets, increased marrow megakaryocytes, and no prophylactic platelet transfusion even at zero platelets.
  4. HIT clots. Antibody against heparin-PF4, onset days 5–10, platelets are activated before they are destroyed. Stopping heparin is not enough — add a direct thrombin inhibitor, and avoid platelet transfusion.
  5. NAIT: first pregnancy, normal maternal platelet count. Rh disease is the second pregnancy. That contrast is the exam question.
  6. TTP has normal PT and aPTT; DIC does not. TTP is ADAMTS13 deficiency treated by plasma exchange; typical HUS has normal ADAMTS13, prominent renal failure, and is not treated by exchange.

Lecture 05 · Tayal

Bleeding Disorders, Part 2

Platelet function · Vitamin K · vWD · Hemophilia · DIC

  1. Qualitative platelet disorders — acquired defects and hereditary function defects
  2. Clotting factor abnormalities — acquired (vitamin K, liver) and hereditary (vWD, hemophilia A & B)
  3. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

Approach

The hemostatic history, then the lab

She opens with the point that history is an important part of hemostatic evaluation, and the questions are targeted:

  • Personal or family history of bleeding?
  • Spontaneous bleeding, or bleeding only under hemostatic challenge — surgery, dental work, childbirth?
  • Medications, vitamins, health foods?
  • Type of bleed?
The single most useful historical discriminator Platelet problem → petechiae · Coagulation factor problem → hemarthrosis
Why the bleeding pattern maps to the defect

Platelets plug the tiny leaks in capillaries continuously. Lose them and you get diffuse, superficial, small-vessel bleeding — petechiae, mucosal ooze, epistaxis — appearing immediately. Clotting factors stabilize a platelet plug that has already formed. Lose them and the initial plug still forms, then fails later under pressure, so you bleed into deep spaces — joints and soft tissue — often with a delay. Hemarthrosis is a factor disease until proven otherwise.

Laboratory tests of hemostasis

  • Routine screening — platelet count, PT, aPTT, plus fibrinogen, D-dimer, thrombin time
  • Specialized — bleeding time, platelet function tests, vWF testing, factor assays (F8, F9, F11)

Objective 1 · acquired

Acquired platelet function defects — the platelets don't work

Drugs and vitamins — very common:

  • Cyclooxygenase inhibitors (aspirin and other NSAIDs) — inhibit thromboxane A2 production, and TxA2 stimulates platelets
  • P2Y12 receptor inhibitors (clopidogrel, ticlopidine) — the P2Y12 receptor binds ADP, which is crucial for platelet activation and aggregation

Other conditions affecting platelet function:

  • Uremia — multiple effects on platelet function
  • Cardiac surgery — platelet activation and destruction in the bypass circuit
Exam trap

A patient on aspirin bleeds with a completely normal platelet count, PT, and aPTT. Qualitative defects are invisible to every routine screening test — the count is normal because the platelets are all present, and PT/aPTT are normal because the factors are fine. You need a platelet function test to see it. This is exactly the same “normal panel with real bleeding” trap as vessel wall disease from Part 1.

Tests of platelet function

  • Bleeding time — standard incision, blot until bleeding stops. Difficult to perform, not reproducible, and NOT DONE ANYMORE
  • Automated platelet function analyzer — platelets exposed to agonists (collagen, epinephrine, ADP). Good at detecting antiplatelet medications, vWD, and inherited function disorders

Platelet agonists are substances that activate platelets: thrombin, TxA2, ADP, collagen, epinephrine, arachidonic acid, ristocetin. Historically tested by optical platelet aggregometry; today rapid assays can determine whether a patient is on an antiplatelet drug and whether it is working.

Objective 1 · hereditary

Hereditary platelet function defects

Two receptors, two diseases, and the receptor's job tells you which step fails:

The receptor map GPIIb-IIIa (αIIbβ3) = fibrinogen receptor → AGGREGATION · GP1b = vWF receptor → ADHESION

Deficiency of GPIIb-IIIa gives Glanzmann thrombasthenia; deficiency of GP1b gives Bernard-Soulier syndrome; deficiency of vWF itself gives von Willebrand disease — three defects along one pathway.

Glanzmann thrombastheniaBernard-Soulier syndrome
DefectGPIIb-IIIa (αIIbβ3) integrin — fibrinogen receptorGP1b complex — principal vWF receptor
Step that failsAggregation — platelets cannot bridge to each other via fibrinogenAdhesion to subendothelial matrix under high shear stress
InheritanceAutosomal recessive, carriers asymptomaticAutosomal recessive, most carriers asymptomatic
GenesITGA2B (αIIb), ITGB3 (β3)GP1BA, GP1BB
Platelet count / sizeNormalGIANT platelets with mild thrombocytopenia
AggregometryNo aggregation to ADP, collagen, epinephrineNo aggregation to ristocetin
NoteMost common inherited disorder of platelet function; lifelong mucosal bleeding that may need platelet transfusions
Why the aggregometry results differ

Ristocetin works by promoting vWF binding to GP1b — it tests the adhesion receptor specifically. ADP, collagen, and epinephrine all funnel into GPIIb-IIIa activation and cross-linking by fibrinogen — the aggregation step. So the agonist that fails identifies the receptor that is missing. Ristocetin failure → GP1b axis (Bernard-Soulier, or vWD). Failure to everything else → GPIIb-IIIa (Glanzmann).

Platelet granule disorders — “storage pool disease”

Rare disorders of platelet secretion, with variable reduction in the number and contents of:

  • Alpha granules (α-SPD) — store fibrinogen and vWF
  • Dense granules (δ-SPD) — store Ca2+, serotonin, ATP/ADP
  • Rarely both (αδ-SPD)

The granule contents needed for clot formation (fibrinogen, vWF) and for further platelet activation (ADP) are simply not available. Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome = albinism + δ-SPD, with impaired release of granule-bound ADP. Molecular mechanisms are not well understood, bleeding is variable, and electron microscopy can detect the decreased granules.

Objective 2 · cascade recap

The classic cascade, as she frames it for the lab

“Contact factor pathway”“Tissue factor pathway”
Estimated byaPTTPT (INR)
Elevated withHeparin; deficiency of F8, F9, F11Warfarin (Coumadin); deficiency of F7

Her caveat on the slide: this is only partly true in vivo. The two-pathway model is a description of the test tube, not of physiology — in a real vessel, tissue factor initiates and thrombin feeds back to amplify through F8 and F5.

Objective 2 · acquired

Vitamin K deficiency and liver disease

Vitamin K deficiency

  • Usually hospitalized patients
  • Cofactor for gamma-carboxylation of the vitamin K-dependent clotting proteins — 2, 7, 9, 10
  • Malnutrition and decreased gut flora are usually responsible
  • PT increases FIRST, because of the short half-life of factor 7
  • Treatment: vitamin K replacement, with response in 24–48 hours

Urgent Coumadin reversal in a bleeding patient:

  • Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) — contains ALL clotting factors
  • Prothrombin complex concentrates — contain the 4 vitamin K-dependent factors
Why PT moves before aPTT

All four vitamin K-dependent factors fall, but they do not fall at the same rate — a factor's level drops in proportion to how fast it clears, and F7 has the shortest half-life of the four. F7 is also the only one of them in the extrinsic limb, which is what PT reads. So the first abnormality is an isolated PT prolongation, and aPTT follows later as 9, 10, and 2 deplete. The same logic explains why PT/INR is the test used to monitor warfarin.

Liver disease

  • Decreased synthesis of vitamin K-dependent factors
  • Increased fibrinolysis, secondary to decreased antiplasmin
  • Synthesis of abnormal fibrinogen
  • Labs: increased PT and aPTT; decreased platelets with hypersplenism
  • Treatment: FFP replacement when bleeding
Exam trap

Liver disease and DIC both give prolonged PT, prolonged aPTT, and low platelets. Vitamin K deficiency gives a prolonged PT with a normal or later-rising aPTT and a normal platelet count. The platelet count and the D-dimer are what separate the three — and vitamin K deficiency corrects with vitamin K in 24–48 hours, which liver disease will not.

Objective 2 · vWD

von Willebrand disease

The most common autosomally inherited bleeding disorder — estimated frequency around 1%, with no geographical or ethnic predilection. The VWF gene is on chromosome 12, cloned in 1985, and the protein undergoes extensive post-translational modification. Usually autosomal dominant transmission (types 1 and 2).

Bleeding is variable: epistaxis, spontaneous mucous membrane bleeding, excessive bleeding from wounds. Menorrhagia should prompt testing for vWD.

The factor VIII–vWF complex

  • F8 is produced by endothelial cells in the liver and elsewhere — NOT by hepatocytes
  • F8 binds vWF with high affinity, so if vWF levels are normal, all F8 circulates bound to vWF
  • Since vWF stabilizes F8, vWF deficiency causes a secondary decrease in F8
Why vWD prolongs the aPTT at all

vWF is not a clotting factor and has no place in the cascade — so on its own it should not touch the aPTT. It does so indirectly: unbound F8 is rapidly cleared, so losing vWF drags F8 down with it. That is why the aPTT in vWD is normal unless F8 falls significantly, and why severe Type 3 disease can produce hemarthrosis that mimics hemophilia — at that point the patient functionally has both a platelet adhesion defect and a factor 8 deficiency.

Quantitative variants

  • Type 1most common (65–85%). Autosomal dominant with variable expressivity, heterogeneous mechanisms. Decreased levels of normally functioning vWF (5–40%). Usually mild but heterogeneous in bleeding
  • Type 3very rare but severe, with extremely low vWF. Can have hemarthrosis like severe hemophilia. Deletions or frameshift mutations produce either a null phenotype or a vWF that is not secreted

Qualitative variant

  • Type 220–35%. Mostly missense substitutions causing defective multimer assembly. Produces structurally abnormal vWF that cannot interact normally with platelet GP1bα and F8. Mild to moderate bleeding. Many variants; Type 2A is most common

Laboratory evaluation

  • aPTT — not elevated unless F8 is significantly decreased
  • Platelet count normal, except low in type 2B
  • vWF activity (ristocetin cofactor activity)low in all types
  • vWF antigen — corresponds to activity in types 1 and 3, but type 2 can have antigen higher than activity
  • F8 activity — decreased
  • vWF multimer studies — a gel study that can be helpful
  • Genetics — useful in Type 3 for counselling; molecular tests exist for Type 2
The discriminator that defines quantitative versus qualitative

Antigen versus activity. Types 1 and 3 are quantity problems — the protein present works normally, so antigen and activity fall together. Type 2 is a quality problem — plenty of protein is made but it is defective, so antigen is higher than activity. A discrepancy between the two numbers is the exam's way of telling you it is Type 2.

Therapeutic management

  • Replace vWFVWF:F8 concentrate or recombinant vWF. Useful in all types, especially Types 3 and 2
  • Stimulate release of vWFDDAVP (desmopressin) releases vWF from endothelial Weibel-Palade bodies by agonist effect on vasopressin V2 receptors. Useful in Type 1, but check that it works in the individual patient
  • AntifibrinolyticsAmicar, tranexamic acid. Inhibit conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, inhibiting fibrinolysis and thus stabilizing clots
Why DDAVP works in Type 1 and not Type 3

DDAVP empties a storage depot — it releases vWF that endothelial cells have already made. Type 1 patients make normally functioning vWF, just too little, so there is a reserve to mobilize and the released protein works. Type 3 patients make almost none, or none that is secreted — there is nothing in the depot to release. Type 2 patients would release defective protein. Hence: DDAVP for Type 1, concentrate for Types 2 and 3.

Objective 2 · hemophilia

Hemophilia A and B

  • Sex-linked (X-linked) recessive
  • Hemophilia A (factor 8) — 1 in 5,000 males
  • Hemophilia B (factor 9, “Christmas disease”) — 1 in 30,000 males
  • Clinically indistinguishable from each other
  • aPTT elevated, and a mixing study CORRECTS it — mixing normal plasma with patient plasma normalizes the aPTT
  • Confirm with specific factor assays for F8 or F9
  • Multiple genetic defects — >700 described for F8, >800 for F9

Severity tracks factor activity level

ActivitySeverityBleeding pattern
<1%SevereSpontaneous hemarthroses and soft tissue bleeds
1–5%ModerateBleeding with mild trauma; hemarthroses with trauma, occasional spontaneous
>5%MildBleed only with significant trauma or surgery

Factor products

Prepared from pooled human plasma or by recombinant techniques — F8 concentrates for hemophilia A, F9 concentrates for hemophilia B, and plasma-derived or recombinant VWF-F8 concentrates for vWD. Dosing depends on the situation, and the products are very expensive.

Factor 8 inhibitors

  • Hemophilia A patients who have received F8 concentrates can develop an alloantibody that destroys F8
  • Older patients can develop an autoantibody against F8 without having hemophilia
  • Both bleed severely
  • The mixing study does NOT correct — the inhibiting antibody rapidly binds and inactivates the F8 in the normal plasma you just added
  • Inhibitor strength is estimated by the Bethesda titer

Treatment of an inhibitor:

  • Large doses of F8 to overwhelm the inhibitor
  • Recombinant 7a (NovoSeven) for high-titer inhibitors — activates X to Xa on the platelet surface, producing a “thrombin burst”
  • Activated prothrombin complex concentrates — non-activated factors II, IX, X plus activated factor VII
The mixing study is the highest-yield concept here

Corrects = deficiency. Does not correct = inhibitor. The logic is direct: if the patient is simply missing a factor, the normal plasma supplies it and the clotting time normalizes. If the patient has an antibody, that antibody attacks the factor in the donated plasma too, so the aPTT stays long. One cheap test separates a hereditary deficiency from an acquired inhibitor — and the treatments are completely different.

Why NovoSeven bypasses the problem

An F8 inhibitor blocks the intrinsic route to factor X. Recombinant 7a activates X directly on the platelet surface — it enters the cascade downstream of the blockade entirely, so the antibody is irrelevant. This is what “bypassing agent” means: you are not overcoming the antibody, you are routing around it.

Objective 3 · DIC

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

A “consumption coagulopathy” — consumption of platelets and clotting factors, with fibrin formation and subsequent lysis.

The defining paradox The patient CLOTS (thrombin production) and BLEEDS (factor and platelet consumption)

It can develop rapidly or slowly, and is classified as acute (uncompensated, with decreased clotting factors) versus chronic (compensated, with normal clotting factors).

Major associated disorders

  • Obstetric complications — placental abruption, retained dead fetus, septic abortion, amniotic fluid embolism
  • Infections — gram-negative sepsis, meningococcemia, Rocky Mountain spotted fever
  • Neoplasms — widespread cancer, acute promyelocytic leukemia
  • Massive tissue injury — trauma, burns
  • Other — acute intravascular hemolysis, snakebites

Clinical manifestations

Signs are often masked by the underlying disorder.

  • Bleeding is most common — ecchymoses, petechiae, purpura, trauma-related oozing, post-surgical hemorrhage (obstetric, trauma)
  • Vascular thrombosis is less common, due to fibrin formation — renal insufficiency, necrotic skin lesions. More often seen when cancer is the underlying cause

Pathologic microvascular fibrin deposition — platelet-fibrin thrombi — causes the end-organ damage in DIC and in the other microangiopathies.

Laboratory manifestations

TestDICCause
Platelet countThrombin activation, destroyed in the microvasculature, endotoxemia
PTDecreased clotting factors (V)
aPTTDecreased clotting factors (V, VIII)
FibrinogenThrombin-induced conversion to fibrin monomer and fibrin
D-dimer & fibrin degradation productsSecondary lysis of intravascular fibrin

Management

Treat the underlying disease.

  • Supportive care — vital signs, watch for bleeding and thrombosis, correct hypovolemia
  • Follow labs — platelet count, PT, aPTT, D-dimer — to monitor the patient
  • If bleeding, consider transfusing red cells, plasma, platelets, cryoprecipitate
Why every number moves, and why that is the diagnosis

DIC is the only disorder in these two lectures that hits all three arms of hemostasis at once. Widespread thrombin generation consumes platelets (count falls), consumes factors (PT and aPTT rise), and converts fibrinogen to fibrin (fibrinogen falls). Then fibrinolysis clears that fibrin and releases D-dimer (rises). No single-lesion disease can produce that combination — low platelets + low fibrinogen + prolonged PT and aPTT + high D-dimer is effectively pathognomonic.

Synthesis

Reading the panel — both bleeding lectures at once

PlateletsPTaPTTFibrinogenD-dimer
Vessel wall disease
Qualitative platelet defect (aspirin, Glanzmann)
ITP
TTP / HUS
Hemophilia A or B
vWD(↓ in 2B)– /
Vitamin K deficiency, early
Liver disease– /
DIC

Read it in three questions. Is the platelet count low? That splits quantitative from qualitative and vascular. Which clotting time is prolonged? Isolated PT points to F7 / vitamin K / warfarin; isolated aPTT points to F8, F9, F11, heparin, or an inhibitor; both point to the common pathway or consumption. Is fibrinogen low and D-dimer high? That is what makes it DIC rather than TTP or liver disease.

Highest yield

Seven things to carry out of this lecture

  1. Petechiae mean platelets; hemarthrosis means factors. The bleeding pattern narrows the differential before any lab returns.
  2. Qualitative platelet defects have a completely normal screening panel. Aspirin, Glanzmann, Bernard-Soulier, storage pool disease — normal count, normal PT, normal aPTT.
  3. Glanzmann = GPIIb-IIIa = aggregation, no response to ADP/collagen/epinephrine. Bernard-Soulier = GP1b = adhesion, no response to ristocetin, with giant platelets.
  4. PT rises first in vitamin K deficiency because F7 has the shortest half-life of factors 2, 7, 9, 10.
  5. F8 is made by endothelial cells, not hepatocytes, and vWF stabilizes it — which is why vWF deficiency secondarily lowers F8 and can prolong the aPTT.
  6. vWD antigen versus activity: they fall together in Types 1 and 3 (quantity), but antigen exceeds activity in Type 2 (quality). DDAVP for Type 1; concentrate for Types 2 and 3.
  7. Mixing study corrects = factor deficiency; does not correct = inhibitor. And DIC is the one that moves every number — low platelets, low fibrinogen, prolonged PT and aPTT, high D-dimer.

Lecture 06 · Tayal

Blood Transfusion

Components · ABO & Rh · Type and screen · Transfusion reactions

  1. Blood component therapy — which product, for which patient, at which threshold
  2. ABO and Rh blood group systems and the basis of compatibility
  3. Pre-transfusion testing — type, screen, crossmatch
  4. Transfusion reactions — recognition, mechanism, and management
  5. Alternatives to allogeneic transfusion

Approach

Component therapy, not whole blood

The governing principle is that a patient receives only the part of blood they actually need, in the correct amount, guided by evidence-based thresholds. Three reasons drive this:

  • Every transfusion carries risk — the risk/benefit ratio must be weighed each time
  • The blood supply is limited; one donation split into components serves several patients
  • Alternatives should be used when possible

Blood comes from healthy, volunteer, non-paid donors screened by questionnaire for infectious-disease risk factors, and informed consent is required from the patient before transfusing.

FDA-required testing on every unit

  • HIV-1 and HIV-2 — nucleic acid amplification (NAT) plus antibodies
  • Hepatitis C — NAT plus antibodies · Hepatitis B — NAT, HBsAg, anti-HBc
  • HTLV I and II, syphilis (Treponema pallidum), West Nile virus (NAT)
  • Trypanosoma cruzi (Chagas disease), CMV (some units), Babesia (endemic areas)
Residual infectious risk with current testing HIV, HBV, or HCV < 1 in 2 million per transfusion
Why T. cruzi and Babesia are on this list

Both are blood-borne parasites that live inside or alongside red cells and can persist for years in an asymptomatic donor. T. cruzi circulates as trypomastigotes during chronic infection; Babesia is an intraerythrocytic piroplasm. Neither is cleared by the standard viral testing, and both have caused transfusion-transmitted disease — which is exactly why they carry their own screening requirement. You met both of these in Micro 820.

Objective 1 · the products

The five components and what each one is for

ComponentContainsIndications
Red blood cells Hemoglobin. Stored at 4°C for up to 42 days in citrate anticoagulant, phosphate buffer, dextrose. Some hemolysis with storage as ATP is depleted. Acute anemias — blood loss from trauma or surgery, acute hemolysis, aplastic crisis. Chronic anemias — chemotherapy, renal failure, hemoglobinopathies and thalassemias. Symptomatic anemia.
Platelets Platelet concentrates, from apheresis or pooled whole-blood collections. Stored at room temperature. Quantitative — thrombocytopenic and bleeding; thrombocytopenic and not bleeding (prophylaxis, the most common use). Qualitative — Glanzmann, Bernard-Soulier, storage pool disease; acquired defects from aspirin and clopidogrel.
Fresh frozen plasma Non-cellular. Prepared by centrifugation of whole blood, stored frozen, thawed before use. Contains ALL clotting factors including fibrinogen. Replace all coagulation factors — DIC, liver disease, massive transfusion (dilutional coagulopathy). TTP — provides ADAMTS-13. Coumadin reversal — provides factors 2, 7, 9, 10.
Cryoprecipitate Prepared from FFP, stored frozen. Contains fibrinogen, F8, vWF, F13. Severe hypofibrinogenemia (<100 mg/dL) in massive transfusion and DIC; dysfibrinogenemia; F13 deficiency. Target post-transfusion fibrinogen >100–150 mg/dL.
Whole blood Everything at once. Life-threatening hemorrhage when oxygen-carrying capacity, coagulation factors, platelets, and volume expansion are all needed simultaneously.
Exam trap

Cryoprecipitate contains F8 and vWF, and it is still the wrong answer for hemophilia A and vWD — she states this explicitly. Those patients get specific factor concentrates (recombinant or plasma-derived F8, plasma-derived VWF-F8 concentrate), which are purer, virally inactivated, and dose-calculable. Cryo is a fibrinogen product. The presence of an ingredient does not make a product the right treatment.

Red cell transfusion thresholds

Hemoglobin < 7 g/dL → often needs transfusion · > 10 g/dL → rarely needs transfusion

Symptomatic anemia is its own indication regardless of where the number falls — excessive fatigue, malaise, headache, tachycardia, hypotension, end-organ damage.

Platelet transfusion “triggers”

SettingThreshold
Spontaneous bleedingRare above 20,000/mm³
Stable thrombocytopenic oncology patient10,000 — trials support this; uncomplicated chemotherapy patients tolerate 5,000–10,000
Active bleeding, post-surgical, pre-surgical> 50,000
Neurosurgical bleeding> 100,000
Qualitative platelet disorder with bleedingTransfuse regardless of count
Exam trap — ask why the count is low first

Platelet transfusions are NOT always helpful. In DIC, ITP, TTP, and HIT the low count reflects ongoing consumption or immune destruction, not failed production — transfused platelets are destroyed just as fast. In HIT it is worse than futile: adding platelets to an actively prothrombotic state feeds the thrombosis. In ITP she made the same point in Part 1 — no prophylactic platelet transfusion. The reflex “low platelets → give platelets” is the trap; the question is always why they are low.

Objective 2 · ABO

ABO — the system that kills you fastest

The most important system for transfusion compatibility. ABO antigens are carbohydrate, determined by which saccharide is attached to a subterminal galactose. The A and B transferase genes encode enzymes that covalently attach that sugar:

Which sugar gets added N-acetylgalactosamine = A · Galactose = B · Both = AB · Neither = O

The H antigen (fucose) is the backbone onto which A and B are built. Absence of H entirely is the Bombay phenotype, and those individuals make anti-H — which makes them incompatible with essentially all ordinary donors, including group O.

Why ABO mismatch causes catastrophic intravascular hemolysis

Anti-A and anti-B are naturally occurring and preformed — she calls them the expected antibodies, and they are present without any prior transfusion or pregnancy. They are IgM, which is pentameric and therefore an extremely efficient complement fixer: a single IgM molecule can bridge the C1q arms and trigger the cascade to completion. That runs all the way to C5b-9 membrane attack complex, punching holes in the red cell inside the vessel. Compare this to anti-D, which is IgG, requires prior sensitization, and does not fix complement well — those cells are removed slowly by splenic macrophages instead. Same principle you learned in hemolytic anemia: IgM → complement → intravascular; IgG → spleen → extravascular.

Selecting ABO group for red cell transfusion

Recipient ABO (frequency)1st2nd3rd4th
O (45%)O
A (40%)AO
B (11%)BO
AB (4%)ABABO

Read the table as a rule rather than a list: a recipient can receive any group whose antigens they will not attack. Group O has no A or B antigen, so O is the universal red cell donor; group AB has no anti-A or anti-B, so AB is the universal recipient. Rh(D) positive = 85% of the population, Rh(D) negative = 15%.

Objective 2 · Rh

Rh — second in importance, different in kind

  • Protein-based antigens, function unclear — in contrast to the carbohydrate ABO antigens
  • Coded by 3 allelic antigen pairs: RHD codes the D antigen; RHCE codes C/c and E/e
  • Antibodies against D, C, c, E, e are caused by exposure — transfusion, pregnancy, transplant
  • RhoGAM (Rho(D) immune globulin) prevents formation of anti-D in Rh(D)-negative pregnant women
The core contrast ABO: carbohydrate · IgM · preformed · intravascular Rh: protein · IgG · requires exposure · extravascular & crosses placenta

Where red cell antibodies come from

  • Alloantibody — the individual was exposed to a foreign RBC antigen during transfusion or pregnancy and made an antibody against it
  • Hemolytic disease of the newborn — mother produces antibody against a foreign fetal RBC antigen (Rh system, Kell); the IgG crosses the placenta, binds fetal RBCs, and destroys them
Why HDN needs IgG specifically

Only IgG crosses the placenta — IgM is far too large. This is the single fact that makes anti-D dangerous to a fetus while anti-A/anti-B (IgM) largely are not, and it is the same logic that made NAIT possible in the bleeding lecture: maternal IgG against a fetal platelet antigen crossing to destroy fetal platelets. Different target, identical mechanism.

RBC antigens associated with disease

AntigenAssociation
P antigenReceptor for Parvovirus B19
i antigenCold agglutinins in mononucleosis (EBV)
I antigenCold agglutinins in Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Duffy (Fy)Receptor for Plasmodium vivax — RBCs lacking Duffy are relatively resistant to P. vivax invasion
Two cross-course callbacks worth holding onto

Parvovirus B19 uses the P antigen to enter erythroid precursors — which is precisely why it causes aplastic crisis in patients with a shortened red cell lifespan, the sickle cell scenario from the hemolytic anemia lectures and one of the acute anemias listed as a transfusion indication on this very slide set. Duffy-negativity is common in West African populations and confers resistance to P. vivax — the classic Micro 820 explanation for why vivax malaria is largely absent from that region. An antigen is a receptor before it is a blood group.

Objective 3

Tests performed in the blood bank before transfusion

Three steps, in order — type, screen, crossmatch.

StepWhat is testedWhat it answers
Type Front type — patient red cells tested with anti-A, anti-B, anti-D reagents.
Back type — patient plasma tested for the expected anti-A and anti-B.
What is the patient's ABO and Rh(D) status? The two halves must agree.
Screen Patient plasma or serum against reagent red cells. Are there unexpected red cell antibodies? If positive, proceed to antibody identification to determine specificity (anti-D, Kell, Duffy, etc.).
Crossmatch Patient plasma mixed with red cells from the actual unit. Is this specific unit crossmatch compatible?
Why front type and back type both exist

They are reciprocal checks on the same answer. Front typing asks which antigens are on the cells; back typing asks which antibodies are in the plasma — and because anti-A and anti-B are predictably present whenever the corresponding antigen is absent, the two results must mirror each other. A group A patient must show A antigen on cells and anti-B in plasma. When they disagree, something is wrong — a subgroup, a recent transfusion, a Bombay phenotype, or a mislabeled specimen. This built-in redundancy is the reason ABO typing is as safe as it is.

Methods include classic tube typing, and automated solid-phase capture and gel systems.

What counts as a “clinically significant” antibody

Clinically significant equals ability to cause hemolysis and/or hemolytic disease of the newborn
  • ABO — preformed anti-A, anti-B
  • Rh system — D, C, c, E, e
  • OthersKell, Kidd, Duffy, S

Objective 4 · acute

Transfusion reactions — the immediate ones

Her definition: any unexpected or unfavorable sign or symptom occurring during or shortly after transfusing blood or one of its components. Two rules sit above everything else:

Rules NEVER ignore a possible transfusion reaction FIRST step: STOP THE TRANSFUSION

Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR)

  • Most are due to ABO incompatible transfusion; the most common single scenario is “A to O” — group A blood given to a group O patient
  • Preformed antibody (anti-A in the recipient) binds antigen on the transfused cells → complement fixationC5b-9 MACintravascular hemolysis
  • Presentation: fever, chills, hypotension, back pain, tachycardia, diaphoresis, dyspnea
  • Treatment: stop the transfusion; maintain urine output with fluids and diuretics; cardiovascular support in the ICU
The root cause is not immunology

She is emphatic about this: AHTRs are traced to patient misidentificationthe wrong blood given to the wrong patient. It is one of her three closing key points. This is why mislabeled tubes are never accepted, no exceptions, no matter how inconvenient. The serology is not what fails; the identification step is.

Why “maintain urine output” is the treatment priority

Massive intravascular hemolysis dumps free hemoglobin into plasma, and once haptoglobin is saturated it is filtered into the tubules, where it is directly nephrotoxic and can precipitate as casts — the setup for acute kidney injury. Aggressive fluids and diuretics keep flow through the tubules high enough to dilute and flush the pigment before it obstructs. It is the same reasoning behind managing hemoglobinuria in any severe intravascular hemolysis.

Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR)

  • Patient receiving red cells, platelets, or FFP develops fever (>1°C rise) and shaking chills during or shortly after transfusion
  • Common — up to 1 in 100 to 1 in 200 transfusions
  • Mechanism: cytokines are transfused with the product and disrupt the thermoregulatory center in the brain
  • Not life threatening
  • Treatment: stop transfusing; acetaminophen for fever, meperidine (Demerol) for rigors

Allergic reactions

  • Pruritus and/or urticaria WITHOUT fever, possibly with wheezing (bronchospasm)
  • Mechanism: recipient IgE antibodies recognize an allergen contained in the transfused unit
  • Anaphylaxis is rare but does occur — classically in patients with IgA deficiency
  • Antihistamines for treatment and for prevention (pre-medication)
Why IgA deficiency causes anaphylaxis

An IgA-deficient patient has never made IgA, so their immune system treats donor IgA in the plasma as foreign. Some of these patients carry anti-IgA antibodies, and transfusing any plasma-containing product delivers the antigen directly into the bloodstream — producing a full systemic reaction rather than the local urticaria of an ordinary allergic response. It is the one allergic reaction that can kill.

Exam trap — fever or no fever

Fever + chills = febrile nonhemolytic (cytokines). Itching and hives with NO fever = allergic (IgE). Fever + hypotension + back pain = acute hemolytic (ABO). The presence or absence of fever, plus what accompanies it, separates the three most common acute reactions before any lab returns.

Objective 4 · the rest

TRALI, TACO, TA-GVHD, and septic reactions

Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)

  • During transfusion the patient develops acute respiratory distress — tachypnea, dyspnea, fever, hypoxemiarequiring intubation
  • Majority associated with granulocyte antibodies or HLA antibodies in the donor that react with patient white cells; neutrophil activation leads to lung injury
  • Treatment is aggressive respiratory support in the ICU
  • Used to be the most commonly reported cause of transfusion death; risk decreased by limiting plasma sources to males, never-pregnant females, and females tested for HLA antibodies
Why the donor-restriction policy works

The offending antibodies are in the donor plasma, not the patient. A person only develops HLA and granulocyte antibodies through alloimmunization — and the commonest route is pregnancy, where the mother is exposed to paternal HLA on fetal cells. Restricting plasma donation to males and never-pregnant females removes the population most likely to be carrying those antibodies, which is why an epidemiologic intervention fixed an immunologic problem.

Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO)

Her illustration is arithmetic rather than immunologic: 2 units of red cells at 325 mL, plus 3 units of FFP at 225 mL, plus maintenance IV fluids at 75 mL/hr, in an older patient with impaired cardiovascular status, sums to cardiac failure with pulmonary compromise — and diuretics are needed.

Exam trap — TRALI versus TACO

Both present as respiratory distress during or shortly after transfusion. TRALI is lung injury — antibody-driven neutrophil activation, non-cardiogenic, and giving diuretics does not fix it; the patient needs respiratory support. TACO is volume — cardiogenic, in a patient with limited cardiac reserve, and it responds to diuretics. Look for the total volume infused and the cardiac history.

Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD)

  • Rare but almost always fatal due to immunosuppression
  • Occurs in immunosuppressed patients — cancer, NICU
  • Onset 8–10 days post-transfusion: marked pancytopenia with marrow aplasia, fever, rash on face and trunk spreading to extremities, mucositis, nausea/vomiting/diarrhea, hepatitis
  • Mechanism: recipient shares a haplotype with an HLA homozygous donor, allowing donor lymphocytes to proliferate and attack the recipient. Higher risk with donations from relatives.
  • Prevention: irradiate cellular blood products (red cells, platelets, granulocytes). Irradiation inactivates T-lymphocytes by crosslinking DNA and is 100% effective.
Why a related donor is more dangerous here

This inverts the usual transplant intuition. The recipient's immune system normally destroys donor lymphocytes before they can do anything. But if the donor is HLA homozygous for a haplotype the recipient also carries, the recipient sees the donor cells as self and does not reject them — while the donor lymphocytes still see the recipient's second haplotype as foreign and attack. A relative is far more likely to produce that one-way match, which is exactly why the directed donation from a family member carries the higher risk. The marrow aplasia is what makes it near-uniformly fatal: the graft destroys the host's hematopoiesis.

Septic transfusion reactions

  • Bacteria enter the product because they were in the donor or the unit was contaminated during collection or processing
  • Can cause fatal septicemia with high fever and profound hypotension
  • More common in platelets than red cells — because platelets are stored at room temperature
  • Platelets are now tested for bacteria or treated to kill bacteria
Why storage temperature decides the risk

Red cells sit at 4°C, which is near-refrigeration and slows bacterial replication to a crawl. Platelets cannot be refrigerated — cold storage causes them to change shape, activate, and be cleared rapidly after transfusion, so they are held at room temperature, which is also close to optimal growth temperature for skin flora. A small inoculum from the venipuncture site has several days at 20–24°C to multiply. The storage requirement that keeps platelets functional is the same one that makes them the riskiest product.

Objective 5

Alternatives to blood component therapy

  • Autologous transfusion
    • Preoperative autologous donation — the patient banks their own blood before elective surgery
    • Blood salvage — “cell savers” suction blood from the wound, wash it, and return the RBCs to the patient
  • Hematopoietic growth factors
    • Erythropoietin (EPO) → red cells
    • G-CSF (granulocyte colony stimulating factor) → white cells
    • Thrombopoietin mimetics → platelets
Connecting back to ITP

The thrombopoietin mimetics listed here are the same class — romiplostim and eltrombopag — that appeared on her ITP treatment ladder in Bleeding Disorders Part 1. In ITP they work by driving production hard enough to outpace destruction, which is also why they belong on a list of ways to avoid transfusing at all.

Synthesis

Sorting a reaction at the bedside

ReactionFeverTimingDistinguishing featureMechanism
Acute hemolyticYesMinutesBack pain, hypotension, hemoglobinuriaPreformed IgM anti-A/B → complement → intravascular hemolysis
Febrile nonhemolyticYesDuring / shortly afterFever + chills only; not life threateningTransfused cytokines act on thermoregulatory center
AllergicNoDuringUrticaria, pruritus, ± wheezingRecipient IgE against an allergen in the unit
TRALIYesDuring / hoursHypoxemia, may need intubation; volume-independentDonor HLA/granulocyte antibodies → neutrophil activation → lung injury
TACONoDuring / hoursCardiac failure, responds to diureticsVolume overload in poor cardiac reserve
SepticHighRapidProfound hypotension; most often plateletsBacterial contamination, favored by room temperature storage
TA-GVHDYes8–10 daysPancytopenia + rash + hepatitisDonor T-lymphocytes attack immunosuppressed host

Work it in three questions. Is there fever? No fever with hives is allergic; no fever with volume overload is TACO. How fast? Minutes with back pain and hypotension is hemolytic; eight to ten days with pancytopenia is TA-GVHD. Which product and is there hypoxia? Platelets with profound hypotension suggests sepsis; hypoxia requiring intubation without volume overload is TRALI.

Highest yield

Eight things to carry out of this lecture

  1. Acute intravascular hemolytic transfusion reactions are caused by transfusing the wrong blood to the wrong patient. The failure is patient identification, not serology — which is why mislabeled tubes are never accepted.
  2. ABO is carbohydrate, IgM, preformed, and intravascular. Rh is protein, IgG, requires exposure, and crosses the placenta. Nearly every difference between the two systems follows from those two lines.
  3. First step in any suspected reaction is to STOP THE TRANSFUSION. Everything else comes second.
  4. Ask why the platelet count is low before transfusing platelets. In DIC, ITP, TTP, and HIT platelet transfusion is not helpful, and in HIT it feeds the thrombosis.
  5. Cryoprecipitate is a fibrinogen product — hypofibrinogenemia, dysfibrinogenemia, F13 deficiency. Despite containing F8 and vWF it should NOT be used for hemophilia A or vWD.
  6. FFP contains all clotting factors: DIC and liver disease, TTP (supplies ADAMTS-13), and Coumadin reversal (supplies 2, 7, 9, 10).
  7. TRALI is lung injury from donor antibodies; TACO is volume overload. Both cause respiratory distress; only TACO responds to diuretics.
  8. TA-GVHD is prevented 100% by irradiating cellular products, and the risk is higher from relatives because HLA similarity lets donor lymphocytes survive.

Lecture 07 · Randall

White Blood Cells & Reactive Changes

Leukopenia · Leukocytosis · HLH · Leukemoid reaction · Reactive lymphadenopathy

  1. Normal hematopoiesis and the peripheral white cell precursors
  2. Leukopenia — definition and common causes, including hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis
  3. Leukocytosis — definition and common causes, including the leukemoid reaction and the leukoerythroblastic blood picture
  4. Normal lymph node architecture
  5. Lymphadenopathy and lymphadenitis — the common reactive patterns

Framework

One stem cell, every lineage

All blood and marrow elements arise by stepwise maturation from a hematopoietic stem cell (HSC). Two features define the HSC and both are testable:

  • Pluripotent — it can become any blood lineage
  • Capable of self-renewal — it replaces itself, so the pool is never exhausted

Under normal circumstances this happens predominantly in the bone marrow. Two exceptions you already know:

Sites Adult marrow liver and spleen = extramedullary hematopoiesis fetal hematopoiesis occurs in the liver
Why the liver and spleen, and why this connects back to Lecture 01

Extramedullary hematopoiesis is the fetal program being switched back on under stress. The liver did this job before birth and retains the capacity; the spleen has the open sinusoidal architecture to host it. It appears whenever the marrow either cannot keep up with demand (chronic severe hemolysis — thalassemia, sickle cell) or is physically displaced (myelophthisic processes). That second scenario is exactly what produces the leukoerythroblastic picture at the end of this lecture — same pathophysiology, viewed from the peripheral smear instead of the organ.

Reference ranges — absolute counts (×10³/µL, Robbins)

CellAbsolute countComment
Total WBC4.5–11The number that defines leukopenia vs leukocytosis
Neutrophils1.4–6.5Largest fraction; <0.5 = high infection risk
Lymphocytes1.2–3.4T cells are 80–90% of circulating lymphocytes
Monocytes0.1–0.6Rises in chronic inflammation
Eosinophils0–0.5Allergy, drugs, parasites
Basophils0–0.2Basophilia is rare and points to CML

Reference ranges vary by laboratory and by patient age. Leukopenia is a decreased WBC count; leukocytosis is an increased WBC count. Either can involve multiple cell lines or just one.

Exam trap

Work from the absolute count, not the percentage. A patient with a total WBC of 2.0 and 80% lymphocytes has an absolute lymphocyte count of 1.6 — normal — and is actually neutropenic. Relative counts shift whenever any single line moves, so a “high lymphocyte percentage” is frequently a disguised neutropenia.

Objective 2 · leukopenia

Neutropenia and agranulocytosis

Decreased circulating neutrophils. Every cause falls into one of two buckets — decreased production or increased use/consumption.

MechanismCausesNotes
Drug/medication toxicity Dose-dependent (predictable) — chemotherapeutic drugs. Idiosyncratic (unpredictable) — certain antibiotics and psychiatric medications. The single most common cause. Always the first question in a new neutropenia.
Increased consumption Severe infection, classically gram-negative sepsis Neutrophils are consumed faster than the marrow can replace them
Immune destruction Autoimmune — e.g. systemic lupus erythematosus Antibody-mediated peripheral destruction
Decreased marrow production Bone marrow disorders — aplastic anemia, myelodysplastic neoplasms, acute leukemias. Severe megaloblastic anemia. Myelophthisic processes — tumor or other process replacing marrow space. Usually accompanied by other cytopenias, which is the clue that the problem is at the source
Consequence Neutropenia opportunistic infection risk high risk below 0.5 ×10³/µL G-CSF or GM-CSF to stimulate production
Why the distinction between predictable and idiosyncratic matters clinically

Dose-dependent toxicity is expected, scheduled, and monitored — you know the nadir is coming after chemotherapy and you plan around it. Idiosyncratic toxicity is by definition unpredictable, so it presents as a previously well patient on a stable antibiotic or antipsychotic who suddenly becomes profoundly neutropenic. The management difference follows: for the first you support through it, for the second you stop the drug.

Objective 2 · leukopenia

Lymphopenia

  • T cells represent 80–90% of circulating lymphocytes, so T-cell damage or loss contributes more to lymphopenia than B-cell loss does
  • Immunodeficiencies — DiGeorge syndrome, HIV
  • Increased cortisol — steroid use, Cushing syndrome
  • Autoimmune disorders
  • Whole body radiation
Exam trap

Cortisol appears on both lists in this lecture and moves the two lines in opposite directions: a high-cortisol state causes lymphopenia and neutrophilia at the same time. Steroids demarginate neutrophils into the circulation while driving lymphocytes out of it. A patient on prednisone with a high WBC and a low lymphocyte count is not necessarily infected.

Objective 2 · HLH

Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH)

A systemic inflammatory syndrome caused by increased cytokines and inflammatory mediators released from macrophages and cytotoxic T cells.

Mechanism Macrophage and cytotoxic T-cell activation IFNγ, TNF, IL-6, IL-12 shock-like clinical picture + suppression of hematopoiesis cytopenias

Clinical and laboratory criteria

  • Fever and hepatosplenomegaly
  • High ferritin — often strikingly so
  • Elevated soluble IL-2 receptor
  • Decreased NK cell activity
  • Hemophagocytosis — macrophages ingesting blood cells, the finding the disease is named for

Triggers, course, and therapy

  • Familial and sporadic forms both exist
  • Most common trigger is infection, often EBV; also underlying malignancy
  • Poor prognosis — hepatitis, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), organ failure, death
  • Therapy is immunosuppression and chemotherapy
Why an inflammatory syndrome causes cytopenias

This looks backwards at first — a hyperinflammatory state should raise counts, not lower them. Two mechanisms drive it down. First, the cytokine flood — particularly IFNγ and TNFdirectly suppresses hematopoiesis at the marrow. Second, the activated macrophages are literally eating blood cells. So production falls while destruction rises, and every line drops. The very high ferritin fits the same logic: ferritin is an acute-phase reactant released by the same activated macrophages, which is why it is one of the most useful screening labs in a septic-appearing patient with falling counts.

Exam trap

HLH and DIC appear together in the same patient, and DIC is listed here as a complication of HLH, not an alternative diagnosis. If a question gives fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia, a ferritin in the thousands, and a consumptive coagulopathy, the unifying answer is HLH with secondary DIC — do not stop at DIC.

Objective 3 · leukocytosis

Neutrophilia, lymphocytosis, and the other lineages

A wide variety of benign/reactive and some neoplastic conditions raise the white count. Sort by which line is up.

LineCausesMorphologic clues
Neutrophilia Bacterial infection / sepsis (most common), tissue necrosis, high cortisol state Toxic changestoxic granulation, vacuolization, Döhle bodies
Lymphocytosis Viral infections; Bordetella pertussis Often accompanied by monocytosis; atypical lymphocytes in IM
Monocytosis Chronic inflammatory states — infections, autoimmune disorders, chronic illness Less likely malignancy
Eosinophilia Allergic disorders, drug reactions, parasitic infections, certain lymphomas (classic Hodgkin, T-cell lymphomas), congenital immunodeficiencies (Wiskott-Aldrich, hyper-IgE / Job syndrome)
Basophilia Rare. Most commonly chronic myeloid leukemia A basophilia is a red flag for a myeloproliferative process
Why Bordetella pertussis is the odd bacterium on the lymphocytosis list

Bacteria classically cause neutrophilia, so pertussis breaking that rule is exactly why it is examinable. It produces lymphocytosis-promoting factor — pertussis toxin — which prevents lymphocytes from leaving the circulation. Note the mechanism carefully: this is not increased production, it is blocked egress. The lymphocytes that would normally home into lymphoid tissue are stuck in the blood, so the peripheral count climbs without any true expansion of the lymphoid mass. A bacterial infection with a striking lymphocytosis in a coughing child is pertussis.

Objective 3 · leukocytosis

Infectious mononucleosis

  • Most commonly acute Epstein-Barr virus; less often cytomegalovirus (CMV)
  • Transmitted by saliva — the “kissing disease”
  • EBV infects B cells, oropharyngeal epithelial cells (→ pharyngitis), and hepatocytes (→ hepatitis)
The response, not the virus, makes the disease EBV infects B cells prominent cytotoxic CD8-positive T-cell response lymphocytosis with “atypical” lymphocytes + lymphadenopathy + splenomegaly via PALS hypertrophy

Diagnosis

  • Monospot test — a screening assay detecting IgM heterophile antibodies that cross-react with horse or sheep red cells, causing agglutination
  • Negative in CMV-associated IM
  • May be negative in the first few days after infection — the window period
  • EBV-specific serology for antibodies against the viral capsid antigen when the monospot is unhelpful

Prognosis and complications

  • Most cases resolve without complications
  • Splenomegaly → increased risk of splenic rupture
  • Drug rash on exposure to ampicillin or penicillin
  • After exposure the virus remains dormant in memory B cells — risk of reactivation and EBV-driven lymphomas if the patient later becomes immunocompromised
Why the atypical lymphocytes are T cells, not infected B cells

This is the single most commonly inverted fact about IM. EBV infects B cells, but the cells filling the smear are reactive CD8-positive cytotoxic T cells responding to those infected B cells. The same logic explains the organ findings: splenomegaly comes from hypertrophy of the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS), which is the T-cell zone of the spleen. The whole clinical picture — big nodes, big spleen, atypical lymphocytes, hepatitis — is the host T-cell response, which is also why it takes weeks to settle.

Exam trap

A negative monospot does not exclude mononucleosis, for two separate reasons that get tested as distinct stems: the patient may have CMV rather than EBV, or they may be in the window period before heterophile antibodies appear. Either way the next step is EBV-specific serology. Separately, do not read the ampicillin rash as a penicillin allergy — it is a near-universal reaction in the setting of acute EBV, not a lifelong drug allergy.

Objective 3 · the two “-oid” pictures

Leukemoid reaction vs leukoerythroblastosis

Both are leukocytosis with immature cells in the blood, and the entire point is telling them apart — from each other, and from real leukemia.

Leukemoid reactionLeukoerythroblastosis
Blood pictureLeukocytosis with circulating immature granulocytes (“left shift”), usually with monocytosis. WBC can get very high.Leukocytosis with left-shifted neutrophilia PLUS circulating erythroid precursors (immature red cells)
Nucleated RBCsLACKS circulating nucleated red blood cellsPRESENT — this is the defining feature
Toxic changesOften presentTypically LACKS toxic changes
CauseSevere infection (usually bacterial); underlying malignancyA marrow disorder — primary bone marrow disease or a myelophthisic process
What it mimicsChronic myeloid leukemia (CML) — hence “leukemoid.” But it LACKS eosinophilia and basophilia
Why nucleated red cells point to the marrow

A left shift alone only says the marrow is being driven hard — a furious but intact marrow pushing out granulocytes early, which is what infection does. Nucleated red blood cells in the peripheral blood mean the marrow’s architectural barrier has been breached: normally erythroid precursors must enucleate before they can exit, and something has to be disrupting that gate for them to appear. Tumor, fibrosis, or granuloma replacing marrow space does exactly that. So “left shift + nucleated RBCs + no toxic changes” = look at the marrow, whereas “left shift + toxic changes + no nucleated RBCs” = look for infection. This is the same myelophthisic process that produced the myelophthisic anemia in Lecture 01 and the extramedullary hematopoiesis discussed at the top of this lecture.

Exam trap

Three findings separate a leukemoid reaction from CML, and the lecture names two of them explicitly: leukemoid reaction lacks eosinophilia, lacks basophilia, and lacks nucleated red cells. Recall that basophilia is most commonly seen in CML — that fact from earlier in this same lecture is the discriminator. A very high WBC with a left shift, toxic granulation, and no basophils is reactive.

Objectives 4–5 · lymph node

Reactive lymph node patterns

Lymphadenopathy is enlarged lymph nodes. Benign enlargement is most commonly one of three histologic patterns, and each one maps to a different compartment of the node and a different stimulus.

PatternCompartmentStimulusFeatures
Follicular hyperplasia B-cell zone — follicles B-cell stimulation — autoimmune disorders, infectious processes, post-vaccination Secondary follicle formation → germinal centers. Reactive germinal centers are polarized, contain tingible body macrophages, and have intact mantle zones
Paracortical hyperplasia T-cell zone — paracortex T-cell stimulationviral illnesses Expansion of the interfollicular region
Sinus hyperplasia / histiocytosis Sinuses Nodes draining solid tumors or a chronically inflamed site Expansion of sinuses by histiocytes/macrophages
Why the three reactive germinal center features are the ones that matter

Each of the three is the direct opposite of what follicular lymphoma shows, which is why they are the features named. A reactive germinal center is polarized into dark and light zones because it is running an organized selection program; a neoplastic follicle has lost that. Tingible body macrophages are clearing apoptotic B cells that failed selection — their presence proves apoptosis is still happening, and their absence in lymphoma reflects the anti-apoptotic BCL2 block. An intact mantle zone shows the follicle is still respecting its boundaries. Read together, they say: this follicle is following the rules.

Objective 5 · lymphadenitis

Acute vs chronic lymphadenitis

Acute lymphadenitisChronic lymphadenitis
PainTender / painfulPainless
ProcessActive inflammatory process, usually infection-related; often a neutrophilic infiltrateChronic inflammation / chronic antigenic stimulation, or neoplasia — low-grade lymphomas, metastatic cancer
Localized formCaused by direct microbiological drainage. Mostly cervical, from dental or tonsillar infections. Bartonella → cat scratch lymphadenitis
Systemic formAssociated with bacteremia and viral infection, mainly in children
Local findingsAbscess formation makes nodes fluctuant; overlying skin often red; sinus formation possible
OutcomeWith infection control the node can revert to normal, though scarring may occurDepends on the underlying process
Exam trap

Pain is the highest-yield single discriminator, and it runs opposite to intuition about seriousness. Tender nodes are usually infectious and usually benign; the painless node is the one that raises concern for malignancy. Tenderness comes from rapid capsular stretch during acute inflammation — a slowly infiltrating tumor expands the node too gradually to hurt.

Highest yield

Eight things to carry out of this lecture

  1. HSCs give rise to all other hematopoietic cells in an orderly manner, and their two defining features are pluripotency and capacity for self-renewal.
  2. Drug toxicity is the most common cause of neutropenia/agranulocytosis — dose-dependent with chemotherapy, idiosyncratic with certain antibiotics and psychiatric medications. Infection risk climbs sharply below 0.5 ×10³/µL.
  3. HLH is a systemic inflammatory syndrome that causes cytopenias — cytokines from macrophages and cytotoxic T cells suppress hematopoiesis. Look for fever, hepatosplenomegaly, very high ferritin, elevated soluble IL-2 receptor, decreased NK activity, and hemophagocytosis; the most common trigger is infection, often EBV.
  4. Infections are the most common cause of leukocytosisbacterial → neutrophilia, viral → lymphocytosis. The exception that gets tested is Bordetella pertussis, a bacterium causing lymphocytosis by blocking lymphocyte egress from the circulation.
  5. IM is associated with a prominent CD8-positive cytotoxic T-cell reaction. EBV infects B cells, but the atypical lymphocytes are reactive T cells and the splenomegaly is PALS hypertrophy.
  6. A negative monospot does not rule out IM — it is negative in CMV-associated disease and during the window period. Confirm with EBV viral capsid antigen serology.
  7. Leukemoid reaction = leukocytosis with circulating immature granulocytes, commonly infectious, often with toxic changes, and lacking eosinophilia, basophilia, and nucleated red cells. Leukoerythroblastic reaction = the same left shift PLUS circulating red cell precursors, typically without toxic changes, and usually signals a marrow process.
  8. Lymphadenopathy sorts by compartment and by pain. Follicular hyperplasia is B-cell driven, paracortical is T-cell/viral, sinus histiocytosis drains tumors and chronically inflamed sites. Acute lymphadenitis is painful and infectious; chronic lymphadenitis is painless and raises concern for chronic inflammation or neoplasia.

Lecture 08 · Randall

Acute Leukemias

ALL · AML · APL · Blast thresholds · Cytogenetic prognosis

  1. Distinguish acute leukemia/lymphoma from chronic leukemia/lymphoma
  2. Understand the numerous modalities needed to diagnose and categorize acute leukemias
  3. Compare acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) to acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
  4. Discuss high-yield subtypes, including clinical and pathologic findings and prognosis — T-ALL, B-ALL, AML with defining genetic abnormalities, AML defined by differentiation, and secondary AML

Framework

The 20% blast rule — what makes a leukemia “acute”

Acute leukemia is generally defined by ≥20% blasts in the blood or bone marrow. That single number is the dividing line, and almost everything else in this lecture hangs off it.

Blasts are the immature cells that arise from the hematopoietic stem cell. They can be undifferentiated, lymphoid, and/or myeloid. Chronic leukemias sit on the other side of the line: they are composed of more mature hematopoietic cells.

The split ≥20% blasts = ACUTE immature cells  •  <20% blasts = CHRONIC mature cells

The two chronic counterparts to keep straight:

  • Chronic lymphocytic leukemia — composed of mature B lymphocytes
  • Chronic myeloid leukemia — composed of various maturing myeloid cells, with <20% blasts
Why the maturity of the cell, and not the cell count, defines the disease

It is tempting to assume “acute” means a higher white count or a faster course. It does not. The distinction is where the clone got stuck. In acute leukemia the malignant clone has lost the ability to differentiate, so it piles up at the blast stage — cells that proliferate but cannot function. In chronic leukemia the clone still matures; it simply fails to die on schedule, so functional-looking cells accumulate slowly. That is why the acute diseases are clinically explosive despite sometimes having a lower total white count than a chronic leukemia: a marrow packed with useless blasts fails at every job at once.

Clinical

Presentation — the marrow is being crowded out

Patients present with features related to the lack of normal hematopoiesis, because the blasts replace the normal marrow cells. Each cytopenia maps to a symptom:

Triad Anemia fatigue  •  Neutropenia infection  •  Thrombocytopenia spontaneous mucosal bleeding, petechiae

The white count itself is not reliable in either direction. Patients often present with leukocytosis from numerous circulating blasts, but some cases present with pancytopenia instead.

Exam trap — the functional neutropenia paradox

A patient can have a markedly elevated WBC and still be functionally neutropenic. The count is high because blasts are spilling into the blood, not because mature neutrophils are being produced. Blasts cannot perform chemotaxis, phagocytosis, or killing. So the number on the CBC reassures you while the patient is as infection-prone as someone with an ANC of zero — which is why infection is a leading cause of death in acute leukemia. Do not let a high WBC talk you out of a neutropenia answer choice; look at the differential.

Workup

Four diagnostic modalities, and why one is never enough

Diagnosing and categorizing an acute leukemia requires numerous modalities used together:

ModalityWhat it answers
MorphologyAre there blasts, and how many? Are there Auer rods? Establishes the ≥20% threshold.
Flow cytometryWhich lineage? Sorts cells by surface antigen — the only practical way to separate B from T lymphoblasts, and lymphoid from myeloid.
CytogeneticsChromosome analysis and FISH — detects translocations, inversions, and ploidy. Drives prognosis and classification.
Molecular testingNext generation sequencing (NGS) — detects gene mutations such as NPM1 that karyotype cannot see.
Why morphology alone cannot classify an acute leukemia

Because B and T lymphoblasts are morphologically identical. Under the microscope they are the same cell. Everything that determines treatment and prognosis — lineage, subtype, risk group — lives in the immunophenotype and the genetics, not the appearance. This is the single best justification for the four-modality workup, and it is a favorite exam framing: the smear tells you that it is acute leukemia, flow tells you which lineage, cytogenetics and NGS tell you how it will behave.

ALL

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia — the overview

  • Most common childhood cancer
  • A minority of adult leukemias
  • The majority are B-ALL (~85%), presenting with extensive blood and bone marrow involvement
  • T-ALL typically presents in adolescent boys with a mediastinal/thymic mass — that is, it is more likely to have a lymphomatous presentation
Why B-ALL floods the marrow and T-ALL builds a mass

The difference tracks the normal home of each precursor. B lymphoblasts develop in the marrow, so a B-cell clone expands where it already lives and spills straight into blood — a leukemic presentation. T lymphoblasts leave the marrow early and mature in the thymus, so a T-cell clone expands in the anterior mediastinum and presents as a mass before it ever floods the blood — a lymphomatous presentation. Same disease category, different address.

B-ALL

B-lymphoblastic leukemia — clinical, diagnosis, prognosis

Also called B-ALL, BLL, or precursor B-cell leukemia.

Clinical

  • Often presents with bone pain/tenderness
  • More likely to involve the CNS than T-ALL

Diagnosis

  • ≥20% blasts — though in practice usually upwards of 80–90%
  • Blasts express CD10, CD19, TdT, and CD34 by flow cytometry or immunohistochemistry
  • TdT = terminal deoxytransferase, a DNA polymerase expressed by both B- and T-lymphoblasts
  • CD34 = stem cell antigen — positive in both ALL and AML
  • B and T lymphoblasts are morphologically identical

Prognosis

Highly curable in children (85–90%) versus a minority of adults (30–40%).

Good prognosisPoor prognosis
Hyperdiploidy (>50 chromosomes)Hypodiploidy
t(12;21); ETV6::RUNX1t(9;22); BCR::ABL1 (Philadelphia chromosome)
Age >1 and <10High white cell count at presentation (>100K)
Why hyperdiploidy is favorable and hypodiploidy is not

The pairing is easier to hold as a single idea: gaining chromosomes is good, losing them is bad. Hyperdiploid blasts — more than 50 chromosomes — behave as a less aggressive, more chemosensitive clone; they accumulate extra genetic material without acquiring the driver lesions that confer resistance, and they respond well to standard therapy. Hypodiploid blasts have lost genetic material, and what tends to be lost are tumor suppressor genes, leaving a clone that is both more aggressive and harder to kill. Note that ploidy is a cytogenetics finding — it is exactly the sort of thing chromosome analysis is ordered to detect, which is why the four-modality workup matters.

Exam trap — two counterintuitive items

First, a high white count at presentation (>100K) is a POOR prognostic sign, not simply a marker of disease burden to be ignored. Second, the Philadelphia chromosome carries opposite meaning depending on the disease: in CML it is the defining lesion and a therapeutic target, while in B-ALL it marks poor prognosis. And note the age window is >1 and <10infants under 1 do poorly, which is why the lower bound is there at all.

T-ALL

T-lymphoblastic leukemia

Mnemonic T-ALL presents in Teenagers with a Thymic mass acute lymphoblastic lymphoma
  • Blasts are positive by flow/IHC for a variety of T-cell markers (CD1a–CD8), plus TdT and CD34
  • Slightly poorer prognosis than B-ALL70–80% cure
B-lymphoblastic leukemiaT-lymphoblastic leukemia
Typical patientYoung childrenTeenagers with a thymic mass
Share of ALL~85%Minority
PresentationExtensive blood and marrow involvement; bone pain; more CNS involvementMediastinal/thymic mass — lymphomatous
MarkersCD10, CD19, TdT, CD34Mixture of CD1a–CD8, TdT, CD34
PrognosisGood: age >1 and <10, hyperdiploidy, t(12;21)
Poor: hypodiploidy, t(9;22), high white count
Slightly worse than B-ALL (70–80% cure)
Exam trap — TdT and CD34 are not lineage markers

TdT is expressed by both B- and T-lymphoblasts, and CD34 is positive in both ALL and AML. Neither tells you lineage. TdT tells you the cell is a lymphoblast (immature lymphoid); CD34 tells you the cell is a stem/progenitor cell. The lineage-defining markers are CD10 and CD19 for B, the CD1a–CD8 series for T, and CD33, CD117, MPO for myeloid.

AML

Acute myeloid leukemia — clinical and diagnosis

  • Predominantly affects adults
  • An extremely heterogeneous disease, reflecting the complexities of myeloid differentiation

The WHO classifies AML into 2 general groups:

WHO AML with defining genetic abnormalities (includes AML, myelodysplasia-related) AML defined by differentiation

Diagnosis

  • ≥20% blasts
  • Most cases express the common myeloid antigens CD33, CD117, MPO, and CD34
  • Some myeloid blasts have identifiable aggregates of MPO in their cytoplasm → Auer rods
Why Auer rods are pathognomonic for myeloid lineage

An Auer rod is not a separate structure with its own biology — it is simply crystallized myeloperoxidase aggregating in the cytoplasm. MPO is the enzyme granulocytes use to generate hypochlorous acid for killing, and only myeloid cells make it. So an Auer rod is a visible confession of lineage. Auer rods are ONLY present in myeloid blasts — find one on a smear and the lymphoid options are eliminated without flow cytometry.

AML group 1

AML with defining genetic abnormalities

Two categories of lesion define this group, and each carries its own prognosis:

LesionTypePrognosis
t(8;21); RUNX1::RUNX1T1Balanced translocationFavorable
inv(16); CBFB::MYH11InversionFavorable
t(15;17); PML::RARABalanced translocation — APLFavorable
t(9;11); KMT2A(MLL)::MLLT3Balanced translocationPoor
Mutated NPM1Gene mutationFavorable
Exam trap — sorting the list

Four of the five are favorable; the one to remember as poor is t(9;11); KMT2A(MLL). A workable handle: the three translocations/inversions with the lowest chromosome numbers — t(8;21), inv(16), t(15;17) — are favorable, and KMT2A/MLL rearrangement is bad wherever it appears. Note also that NPM1 is a gene mutation, not a translocation, so it is found by NGS rather than karyotype — another concrete reason the molecular arm of the workup exists.

APL

Acute promyelocytic leukemia — the one with an antidote

  • Defined by the t(15;17); PML::RARA translocation
  • Proliferation of abnormal promyelocytes
  • Morphology: bilobed “apple-core” / “sliding plate” nucleus, heavy granulation, and faggot cells (bundled Auer rods). The bilobed nucleus is simply where promyelocytes normally get stuck in development
  • Blasts are CD34 negative, and positive for MPO, CD33, and CD117
  • Numerous cytoplasmic granules contain procoagulants → DIC
  • RARA = retinoic acid receptor alpha, and therapy is all trans retinoic acid (ATRA)
Why the translocation explains both the bleeding and the cure

RARA is the receptor that normally drives promyelocytes to differentiate into mature granulocytes. Fusing it to PML produces a receptor that no longer responds to physiologic retinoic acid, so the cell arrests at the promyelocyte stage. Two consequences follow directly. First, promyelocytes are the stage packed with primary granules, and those granules are loaded with procoagulants — when the cells lyse they dump tissue-factor-like activity into the circulation and trigger DIC. Second, because the block is a receptor-sensitivity problem rather than a missing receptor, giving pharmacologic doses of ATRA overwhelms the defect, forces differentiation, and the cells mature and die on schedule. This is differentiation therapy — one of the few cancers treated by making the cells grow up rather than by killing them.

Exam trap — APL is CD34-negative

Most AML expresses CD34, but APL does not. That is not a trivia point: CD34 is a stem-cell antigen, and APL is arrested at the promyelocyte stage, which is further along than a stem cell. The immunophenotype is telling you where the block sits. So APL is the AML that is MPO-positive but CD34-negative — the reverse of the pattern you might expect. Also remember: DIC is the emergency, and it can be worsened transiently at the start of therapy, so the coagulopathy is managed alongside ATRA.

Poor-prognosis AML

AML, myelodysplasia-related (AML-MR) and secondary AML

These two are grouped together because they share a profile: complex karyotype and very poor prognosis.

AML, myelodysplasia-relatedSecondary AML (therapy-related)
Defining historyHistory of myelodysplastic syndrome, or defining cytogenetic/molecular featuresHistory of cytotoxic chemotherapy for a solid or hematopoietic tumor
Culprit agentsAlkylating agents and topoisomerase inhibitors most often
GeneticsOften a complex karyotype or other MDS-defining cytogenetics — del(5q)/-5, del(7q)/-7; or mutations in one of eight MDS-defining genesComplex karyotype
ClassificationSits within AML with defining genetic abnormalitiesCan be any subtype, but most often falls into the AML-MR category
PrognosisVery poorVery poor
Why prior damage predicts a worse disease

Both categories describe a marrow that was already injured before the leukemia arose. In MDS the stem cell pool has been accumulating lesions for years; in therapy-related disease, cytotoxic drugs have mutagenized the surviving stem cells. Either way the clone that emerges does so from a background of widespread genomic damage — which is exactly what a complex karyotype reports. Compare this with the favorable group: a single clean balanced translocation in an otherwise intact genome. One driver lesion is treatable; a shattered genome is not. That contrast is the whole prognostic logic of AML in one line.

AML group 2

AML defined by differentiation

  • Similar to the historic FAB classification (M0–M7)
  • Eight subtypes with various morphologic and immunophenotypic criteria
  • Functions as the “wastebasket” for all AMLs not otherwise defined by clinical history or cytogenetics

Two subtypes are singled out as high yield:

Acute monocytic/monoblastic leukemiaAcute megakaryoblastic leukemia
BlastMPO-negative monoblastsMPO-negative megakaryoblasts
Key associationPresents with high white count and gingival involvementAssociated with Down syndrome in early childhood
Exam trap — MPO-negative does not mean lymphoid

Both high-yield subtypes here are MPO-negative, yet both are unambiguously myeloid. MPO is made by the granulocytic arm; monocytes and megakaryocytes branch away from it, so they never acquire the enzyme. If a question gives you an MPO-negative acute leukemia, do not jump to ALL — check for gingival infiltration (monocytic), Down syndrome in a young child (megakaryoblastic), or monocyte/megakaryocyte markers on flow. And keep the gum finding attached to its cause: monocytes are tissue-invasive by design, so a monoblastic clone infiltrates soft tissue, with the gingiva the most visible site.

Highest yield

Ten things to carry out of this lecture

  1. ≥20% blasts in blood or bone marrow defines acute leukemia. Chronic leukemias are composed of more mature cells — CLL = mature B lymphocytes, CML = maturing myeloid cells with <20% blasts.
  2. Presentation reflects failure of normal hematopoiesis as blasts replace the marrow: anemia → fatigue, neutropenia → infection, thrombocytopenia → mucosal bleeding and petechiae. Leukocytosis is common, but some cases present with pancytopenia.
  3. Diagnosis requires four modalitiesmorphology, flow cytometry, cytogenetics (karyotype and FISH), and molecular/NGS — because B and T lymphoblasts are morphologically identical.
  4. ALL is the most common childhood cancer; ~85% is B-ALL with extensive blood and marrow involvement, while T-ALL presents in Teenagers with a Thymic mass.
  5. B-ALL blasts are CD10, CD19, TdT, CD34 positive. TdT marks both B- and T-lymphoblasts, and CD34 is positive in both ALL and AML — neither is a lineage marker.
  6. B-ALL good prognosis: hyperdiploidy (>50 chromosomes), t(12;21) ETV6::RUNX1, age >1 and <10. Poor: hypodiploidy, t(9;22) BCR::ABL1, white count >100K at presentation. Curable in 85–90% of children versus 30–40% of adults.
  7. AML predominantly affects adults, requires ≥20% blasts, and usually expresses CD33, CD117, MPO, CD34. Auer rods are aggregates of MPO and are ONLY present in myeloid blasts.
  8. Among AML with defining genetic abnormalities, t(8;21), inv(16), t(15;17), and mutated NPM1 are favorable; t(9;11) KMT2A(MLL) is poor.
  9. APL is defined by t(15;17); PML::RARA, is CD34-negative but MPO/CD33/CD117 positive, causes DIC because its granules contain procoagulants, and is treated with ATRA.
  10. AML-MR and secondary (therapy-related) AML both carry a complex karyotype and very poor prognosis. Among AML defined by differentiation, monocytic leukemia gives gingival involvement and megakaryoblastic leukemia associates with Down syndrome in early childhood — both MPO-negative.

Lecture 09 · Randall

Myelodysplastic Neoplasms / Syndromes

Ineffective hematopoiesis · Dysplasia · −5/−7 · Progression to AML

  1. Introduce the overarching characteristics of myelodysplastic neoplasms/syndromes (MDS)
  2. Discuss epidemiology, clinical and laboratory features, and prognosis
  3. Describe morphologic dysplasia in the primary myeloid lineages — granulocytic, erythroid, and megakaryocytic
  4. Briefly discuss the WHO/ICC classification of MDS

Placement

Where MDS sits among the chronic myeloid neoplasms

Everything in this lecture lives on the chronic side of the 20% blast line. There are three categories of chronic myeloid neoplasm, and they are distinguished first by the peripheral blood count, then further defined by marrow morphology and genetic alterations.

Three Myeloproliferative neoplasms Myelodysplastic neoplasms/syndromes Myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative (“overlap”) neoplasms
Myeloproliferative neoplasmsMyelodysplastic neoplasms
Blood countCytoses — too many cellsCytopenia(s) — too few cells
Marrow cellularityHypercellularHypercellular
GeneticsCharacteristic aberrations — t(9;22) BCR::ABL1; JAK2, MPL, CALRCommon abnormalities — monosomy 5/del(5q), monosomy 7/del(7q), complex karyotype
Why both diseases have a hypercellular marrow but opposite blood counts

This is the single most useful idea in the lecture. In MPN the marrow is busy and the cells successfully reach the blood, so the counts go up. In MDS the marrow is equally busy but the cells carry maturation defects and die before they get outineffective hematopoiesis. The result is a paradox worth stating plainly: a patient with cytopenias whose marrow is packed with cells. Production is not the problem; survival to release is.

Definition

What MDS actually is

  • A clonal stem cell disorder
  • Maturation defects → ineffective hematopoiesis
  • Primary (de novo, idiopathic) versus secondary (therapy-related, or with germline predisposition)
Exam trap — MDS versus aplastic anemia

Both present with cytopenias, so the blood count cannot separate them. The marrow does, and it points in opposite directions: MDS is hypercellular with dysplasia, aplastic anemia is hypocellular with morphologically normal remaining cells. Pair this with the myelophthisic process from Lecture 01, which is also hypocellular in effective terms but shows tumor or fibrosis occupying the space and a leukoerythroblastic smear. Three causes of pancytopenia, three different marrows.

Epidemiology

Who gets it, and how it is found

  • Average age of onset is 70
  • Usually an incidental CBC finding; can present with symptoms related to the cytopenias — fatigue, bruising/bleeding, infections

Pathogenesis is unknown in most cases, though some is attributable to prior cytotoxic chemotherapy. There is no single driver mutation or cytogenetic abnormality present across the board. The recurrent cytogenetic abnormalities are:

Cytogenetics −5 / del(5q) −7 / del(7q) Complex karyotype (≥3 aberrations)

Morphology

Dysplasia in the three myeloid lineages

MDS is characterized by morphologic dysplasia, and it requires >10% dysplastic cells in a given lineage for that lineage to count as dysplastic.

LineageDysplastic features
MegakaryocyticHypolobation; multinucleation / “pawn ball” morphology
ErythroidNuclear blebbing, budding, and bridging; ring sideroblasts; megaloblastoid maturation
GranulocyticHypolobationpseudo-Pelger-Huët / “pelgeroid” and unilobate forms; hypersegmentation (less common); hypogranulation
Why dysplasia is the visible signature of a maturation defect

Each of these findings is a cell that started a maturation program and did not finish it correctly. A neutrophil is supposed to segment its nucleus and fill with granules; a pelgeroid cell has a two-lobed or unilobate nucleus and a hypogranular cell never filled. A megakaryocyte is supposed to become one large polylobated nucleus; hypolobation and separate nuclei record the failure. Ring sideroblasts are iron stacked in mitochondria because it could not be loaded into heme — the same lesion seen in sideroblastic anemia. So dysplasia is ineffective hematopoiesis made visible, which is why it is the diagnostic criterion rather than an incidental observation.

Prognosis

Risk stratification and progression to AML

The WHO subclassifies MDS into those with defining genetic abnormalities and those that are morphologically defined. Prognostic score is assigned from three inputs:

Score Cytogenetic abnormalities + Blast percentage + Degree of peripheral cytopenia(s)
  • 10–40% of patients with MDS will progress to AML
  • Complex cytogenetics and increased blasts portend a poorer prognosis
  • MDS after cytotoxic therapy has the highest risk of progression to AML and the most rapid clinical course
  • Increased blasts means ≥5% in the marrow and/or ≥2% in the peripheral blood; ≥20% is AML
  • Survival ranges from 5+ years in low-risk subtypes to under 1 year in high-risk subtypes; most patients succumb to complications of their cytopenias
Exam trap — three different blast thresholds

Keep them separate. ≥2% in blood or ≥5% in marrow counts as increased blasts within MDS and worsens the score. ≥20% in either compartment is no longer MDS — it is AML. Note that the marrow threshold for “increased” is higher than the blood threshold, because a small blast population is normal in marrow and abnormal in blood.

Therapy

Treatment follows fitness, not just risk

PatientApproach
Younger, high-risk diseaseAllogeneic stem cell transplantpotentially curative
Older, or unable to undergo transplantAimed at improving cytopenias and preventing complications: hypomethylating agents, BCL2 inhibitors, thalidomide-like therapies, ± erythropoietin / G-CSF / thrombopoietin agonists

Highest yield

Carry-out points

  1. MDS is characterized by ineffective hematopoiesis — manifesting clinically as cytopenias and morphologically as a hypercellular marrow with dysplasia.
  2. Common cytogenetic abnormalities are −5/del(5q), −7/del(7q), and complex karyotype (≥3 aberrations).
  3. Dysplasia requires >10% of cells in a lineage: megakaryocytic hypolobation and pawn-ball forms, erythroid nuclear budding and ring sideroblasts, granulocytic pseudo-Pelger-Huët and hypogranulation.
  4. MDS is a disease of older adults (average onset 70) and all subtypes carry a risk of progression to AML, at 10–40%.
  5. MDS after cytotoxic therapy has the most aggressive course and the highest rate of progression to AML.
  6. Therapy is allogeneic transplant in younger patients, and supportive plus hypomethylating agents in those not amenable to transplant.

Lecture 10 · PALM 820

Myeloproliferative Neoplasms

CML · Polycythemia vera · Essential thrombocythemia · Primary myelofibrosis

  1. Recognize the shared features of myeloproliferative neoplasms and the driver mutation of each
  2. Know the four classic MPNs — CML, polycythemia vera, essential thrombocythemia, primary myelofibrosis
  3. Understand diagnostic criteria, blood and marrow findings, and prognosis for each
  4. Follow the diagnostic approach to a suspected MPN

Framework

The shared profile of a myeloproliferative neoplasm

Primarily a disease of adults, 40–60 years of age. The molecular lesion in every case is a tyrosine kinase mutation producing constitutive activation, and the consequence is that one or more hematopoietic lineages are expanded.

FeatureIn MPN
Peripheral bloodOne or more lines increased
OrganomegalyUsually present — spleen and liver
Marrow cellularityIncreased
Blast percentageTypically not increased
MaturationPresent
Cell morphologyNormal — except that megakaryocytes have different morphologies in each disease
Why a constitutively active kinase produces this exact picture

A tyrosine kinase that is stuck on delivers a permanent growth signal, but it does not break the maturation program. So the cells proliferate and still mature normally — which explains, in one stroke, why the blood counts are high, why the marrow is hypercellular, why maturation is present, why morphology is normal, and why blasts are not increased. Contrast this with MDS, where maturation is defective and the cells die in the marrow, and with acute leukemia, where maturation is blocked entirely at the blast stage. MPN = proliferation without a maturation defect. The megakaryocyte is the exception that earns attention, because its morphology differs by disease and becomes a diagnostic clue.

Genetics

The mutation table

NeoplasmMutation
Chronic myeloid leukemiaBCR::ABL1 (100%)
Polycythemia veraJAK2 V617F (>95%), exon 12 (~3%)
Essential thrombocythemiaJAK2 (50–60%), CALR (30%), MPL (3%)
Primary myelofibrosisJAK2 (50–60%), CALR (30%), MPL (8%)
Systemic mastocytosisc-KIT D816V (>95%)
Chronic neutrophilic leukemiaCSF3R T618I or other activating CSF3R mutation
Chronic eosinophilic leukemiaJAK2, ASXL1, TET2, EZH2 — excludes PDGFRA, PDGFRB, FGFR1 rearrangements and PCM1::JAK2
Exam trap — JAK2 does not distinguish ET from PMF

ET and PMF share an essentially identical mutation profile — JAK2 in 50–60%, CALR in 30%, MPL in a few percent. The mutation tells you that you are dealing with an MPN; it does not tell you which one. That is why the bone marrow biopsy is essential for primary myelofibrosis and why the WHO criteria for both diseases include a clause requiring that the criteria for the other myeloid neoplasms are not met. The one mutation that is decisive is BCR::ABL1, which is present in 100% of CML and must be excluded before anything else is diagnosed.

CML

Chronic myeloid leukemia — genetics and course

  • 90–95% have t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2) — the BCR gene on chromosome 22 joined to the ABL1 gene on chromosome 9. Others carry variant translocations and are detected by FISH and RT-PCR
  • BCR breakpoints: Major (exons 12–16) → p210; μ-BCR (exons 17–20) → p230; Minor (exons 1–2) → p190
  • 50% are asymptomatic at diagnosis, found on an abnormal WBC count; 50% have splenomegaly
  • Phases: chronic phase and blast phase; fewer than 5% are in blast phase at diagnosis
  • Untreated, progression to blast phase takes about 3–5 years; with TKI therapy (imatinib or a later generation agent), 80–95% five-year overall survival

CML

Chronic phase — blood and marrow

Peripheral bloodBone marrow
Leukocytosis — neutrophilia with left shift including earlier precursors (myelocytes)
No significant dysplasia
Absolute basophilia and eosinophilia
Absolute monocytosis with relative percentage <3%
Platelets normal to increased
Must be differentiated from a leukemoid reaction
Hypercellular with granulocytic hyperplasia
Blasts <5%
Erythroid normal to decreased
Megakaryocytes smaller than normal and hyposegmented“dwarf” forms
Eosinophilia and basophilia
Pseudo-Gaucher cells; reticulin fibers typically increased
Spleen: red pulp infiltration by the granulocytic series
Why basophilia is the finding that separates CML from a leukemoid reaction

Both produce a high white count with a left shift, and both can reach striking numbers. The discriminator carried over from Lecture 07 is that a leukemoid reaction lacks basophilia, lacks eosinophilia, and lacks nucleated red cells, and it does show toxic granulation and Döhle bodies. CML shows the reverse: absolute basophilia and eosinophilia with no significant dysplasia and no toxic changes. Basophilia is the most useful single positive marker, because basophils are rare in reactive states — a raised basophil count is close to a declaration of a myeloproliferative process.

CML

Adverse risk features and blast phase

Adverse risks in chronic phaseBlast phase
10–19% blasts in marrow or blood
≥20% basophils in peripheral blood
Additional or new chromosome abnormality
Resistance to TKI therapy
≥20% blasts in peripheral blood or bone marrow
Typically a myeloblast crisis; a minority have a lymphoblast crisis
Extramedullary proliferation of blasts — most commonly skin, lymph nodes, bone, and CNS
Accelerated and blast phases carry a poor prognosis
Exam trap — the same 20% rule, and the Philadelphia chromosome's three meanings

The ≥20% blast threshold that defines acute leukemia is the same number that defines blast phase of CML — a chronic myeloid neoplasm becoming acute. Note also that 10–19% is the intermediate band, an adverse feature but not yet blast phase. Separately, keep the Philadelphia chromosome straight across three settings: in CML it is the defining, targetable lesion; in B-ALL it is a marker of poor prognosis; and a lymphoblast crisis of CML is a third scenario in which a Philadelphia-positive lymphoblastic picture arises from a pre-existing myeloid disease.

PV

Polycythemia vera

  • Increased red cell production independent of normal regulation, with a decreased erythropoietin
  • Most patients have JAK2 V617F, a gain-of-function mutation
  • Phases: polycythemic phase and spent phase (post-polycythemic myelofibrosis)
  • Must exclude secondary erythrocytosis, heritable polycythemia, and other MPNs
  • Median age 60, slight male predominance; spleen and liver commonly affected
  • Hyperviscosity — headache, dizziness, visual disturbance, hypertension
  • Thrombosis in 20–25%, arterial or venous — mesenteric, portal, or splenic vein, and Budd-Chiari syndrome (hepatic vein thrombosis)
  • Itching, attributed to mast cell activation
  • Treatment is phlebotomy or hydroxyurea
PV diagnostic criteria
Major 1Hemoglobin >16.5 g/dL in men, >16.0 g/dL in women, OR hematocrit >49% in men, >48% in women
Major 2Marrow shows age-adjusted hypercellularity with panmyelosis and pleomorphic mature megakaryocytes (variation in size)
Major 3JAK2 V617F or JAK2 exon 12 mutation
MinorSubnormal serum erythropoietin
DiagnosisAll 3 major, or the first 2 major plus the minor
Why a low erythropoietin is the finding that proves the marrow is autonomous

In secondary erythrocytosis — hypoxia, high altitude, an EPO-secreting tumor — the marrow is doing exactly what it is told, so the EPO is normal or high and the red cell mass follows it. In polycythemia vera the JAK2-mutated progenitor no longer needs the signal, so it makes red cells anyway; the body senses the excess and suppresses EPO, which then sits subnormal in the face of a high hematocrit. That combination is physiologically impossible unless production has become autonomous, which is why a low EPO carries diagnostic weight out of proportion to its status as a “minor” criterion.

PV

Blood, marrow, and the spent phase

Polycythemic phaseSpent phase (post-PV myelofibrosis)
Blood: normocytic normochromic or microcytic hypochromic red cells; neutrophilia with minimal left shift; basophilia is rare; platelets normal to mildly increased
Marrow: hypercellular with erythroid and megakaryocytes most prominently increased; iron is absent
Megakaryocytes: increased, pleomorphic, hypersegmented, in loose clusters near trabeculae
Cytopenias and ineffective hematopoiesis
Red cell mass normalizes then decreases; loss of the phlebotomy requirement
Progressive reticulin then collagenous fibrosis
Leukoerythroblastic smear with teardrop cells
Progressive organomegaly; increased blasts signal accelerated or blast phase

Prognosis: with treatment, median survival exceeds 10 years. Most patients die of thrombosis, hemorrhage, or secondary malignancy. Patients treated with cytotoxic agents have an increased risk of MDS and AML — 10–20% versus 2–3%. Increased marrow fibrosis at diagnosis predicts more rapid progression.

Exam trap — microcytosis and absent iron in a polycythemia

It looks contradictory to see microcytic hypochromic cells and absent marrow iron in a disease of too many red cells. The explanation is consumption: the expanded erythron burns through iron stores, and repeated therapeutic phlebotomy removes more. The patient becomes iron deficient while polycythemic. Similarly, the loss of the phlebotomy requirement in the spent phase sounds like improvement but is the opposite — it signals that the marrow is fibrosing and failing.

ET

Essential thrombocythemia

  • Sustained thrombocytosis >450 ×10&sup9;/L, predominantly involving the megakaryocyte lineage
  • Leukocytosis and erythrocytosis are not typical
  • Increased large mature megakaryocytes — large to giant with hyperlobated, “staghorn-like” nuclei
  • Slight female predilection; most patients 50–60, with a second peak in the 30s, predominantly women
  • About 50% asymptomatic at diagnosis; 50% have vascular occlusion or hemorrhage, including Budd-Chiari syndrome
  • Mild splenomegaly may be present; less risk of hyperuricemia than other MPNs
  • Indolent10–15 year median survival; some progress to post-ET myelofibrosis; fewer than 5% transform to blast phase or MDS, and that may be related to cytotoxic therapy
ET criteria
MajorPlatelets >450 ×10&sup9;/L; marrow megakaryocyte proliferation with large mature hyperlobated forms and no significant erythroid or granulocytic increase or left shift; WHO criteria for CML, PV, PMF or another myeloid neoplasm not met; JAK2, CALR, or MPL mutation
MinorPresence of a clonal marker, or exclusion of reactive thrombocytosis
DiagnosisAll four major, or the first three major plus the minor

PMF

Primary myelofibrosis

  • 30% of patients are asymptomatic; adults 60–70 years of age
  • Often found as unexplained splenomegaly on examination, or on routine blood work showing isolated thrombocytosis, or anemia with leukocytosis and/or thrombocytosis
  • Bone marrow biopsy is essential for diagnosis; organomegaly of spleen and liver
  • Two phases: prefibrotic/early stage and overt fibrotic stage
Prefibrotic stageOvert fibrotic stage
Major criteria (need all three): megakaryocytic proliferation and atypia without reticulin fibrosis beyond grade 1, with increased cellularity, granulocytic proliferation and decreased erythroid; criteria for CML, PV, ET, MDS or other myeloid neoplasm not met; JAK2, CALR or MPL mutation or another clonal marker
Minor (need ≥1 on two occasions): anemia not otherwise explained; leukocytosis >11 ×10&sup9;/L; splenomegaly; elevated LDH
Marrow: hypercellular from myeloid and megakaryocyte hyperplasia; atypical megakaryocytes — clustering, marked size variation, adjacent to trabeculae or sinuses, chromatin clumping, hyperchromatic, bare nuclei; no significant granulocytic or erythroid dysplasia; blasts not increased; only mild reticulin fibrosis
Most cases are diagnosed at this stage
Reticulin fibrosis grade 2 or 3
Collagen fibrosis of various degree
Osteosclerosis of various degree
Patchy hematopoiesis; atypical megakaryocytes remain prominent
Accelerated and blast phases occur
Extramedullary hematopoiesis in spleen and liver

Prognosis is variable: median survival 3–7 years when diagnosed in the fibrotic phase versus 10–15 years in the prefibrotic phase. Complications include marrow failure with infection and hemorrhage, thrombosis, cardiac failure, and hypertension. Progression to blast phase occurs in 5–30%, a subset related to prior cytotoxic therapy.

Why fibrosis produces a leukoerythroblastic smear and a huge spleen

The fibrosis is reactive, laid down by normal fibroblasts responding to cytokines released by the atypical megakaryocytes — it is not part of the clone. As collagen replaces marrow space, two things follow directly. Precursors are squeezed out prematurely, giving the leukoerythroblastic picture with nucleated red cells and teardrop cells that is the same myelophthisic mechanism seen with marrow-infiltrating tumor in Lecture 01. And hematopoiesis relocates to the fetal sites, producing extramedullary hematopoiesis in spleen and liver and therefore massive organomegaly. The teardrop cell is worth remembering as the visual shorthand: a red cell deformed while squeezing out of a fibrotic marrow.

Workup

Diagnostic approach to a suspected MPN

Order Clinical suspicion BCR::ABL1 testing (FISH or qualitative PCR) JAK2, then CALR and MPL analysis Hematology/oncology referral for marrow biopsy and additional testing
CMLPolycythemia veraEssential thrombocythemiaPrimary myelofibrosis
Expanded lineGranulocytesRed cellsPlateletsVariable — often platelets, then cytopenias
DriverBCR::ABL1 (100%)JAK2 V617F (>95%)JAK2 / CALR / MPLJAK2 / CALR / MPL
MegakaryocytesDwarf, hyposegmentedPleomorphic, hypersegmented, loose clustersLarge, staghorn, hyperlobatedAtypical, clustered, hyperchromatic, bare nuclei
Signature findingsBasophilia + eosinophilia, pseudo-Gaucher cellsLow EPO, absent marrow iron, pruritusIsolated thrombocytosis >450KFibrosis, teardrop cells, leukoerythroblastosis, massive spleen
Median survival80–95% 5-year OS on TKI>10 years10–15 years3–7 years (fibrotic) / 10–15 (prefibrotic)

Highest yield

Carry-out points

  1. MPNs are adult diseases driven by a constitutively active tyrosine kinase, producing cytoses with a hypercellular marrow, normal maturation, and blasts not increased.
  2. BCR::ABL1 is present in 100% of CML and must be excluded first; JAK2 V617F is present in >95% of PV; ET and PMF share JAK2/CALR/MPL and cannot be separated by mutation alone.
  3. CML chronic phase shows a left-shifted neutrophilia with absolute basophilia and eosinophilia, blasts <5%, and dwarf megakaryocytes. Basophilia distinguishes it from a leukemoid reaction.
  4. Blast phase of CML is ≥20% blasts; 10–19% blasts and ≥20% basophils are adverse features short of that.
  5. PV is autonomous red cell production with a subnormal erythropoietin, thrombosis in 20–25% including Budd-Chiari, and pruritus; treatment is phlebotomy or hydroxyurea.
  6. ET is sustained thrombocytosis >450 ×10&sup9;/L with large staghorn megakaryocytes and an indolent course of 10–15 years.
  7. PMF requires a marrow biopsy, progresses from a prefibrotic to an overt fibrotic stage, and produces teardrop cells, a leukoerythroblastic smear, and extramedullary hematopoiesis.
  8. All four can enter a spent, fibrotic, or blast phase; cytotoxic therapy raises the risk of transformation to MDS/AML.

Lecture 11 · Randall

Lymphoid Neoplasms — B-cell Lymphomas

CLL/SLL · Follicular · Mantle cell · MALT · LPL · Hairy cell · Burkitt · DLBCL

  1. Review normal B-cell development and how it relates to neoplasia
  2. Explore B-cell neoplasia and risk factors
  3. Define and discuss the most common small B-cell lymphomas — CLL/SLL, mantle cell, follicular, marginal zone/MALT, lymphoplasmacytic, and hairy cell leukemia
  4. Discuss the intermediate and large B-cell lymphomas — Burkitt and diffuse large B-cell lymphoma

Origin

B-cell development maps onto B-cell neoplasia

B-cell neoplasms often arise from cells arrested at a certain stage of development. That arrest produces a clonal proliferation of cells expressing CD markers that mirror the normal cell at that stage — which is why the immunophenotype identifies the disease.

Stage of originPhenotypeNeoplasm
Naïve, pre-germinal centerCD5+ (subset), CD10−CLL/SLL
Naïve, pre-germinal centerCD5+, CD10−Mantle cell lymphoma
Germinal centerCD5−, CD10+Follicular lymphoma
Post-germinal centerCD5−, CD10−Marginal zone / MALT lymphoma
Late post-germinal centerPlasmacytic differentiationLymphoplasmacytic lymphoma
Why most lymphomas come from germinal center or post-germinal center cells

The germinal center is an unstable place. It is the one site in the body where a cell is required to break and rewrite its own DNA — somatic hypermutation to refine antibody affinity and class switch recombination to change isotype — while simultaneously proliferating at an extraordinary rate. Deliberate double-strand breaks plus rapid division is precisely the setting in which a translocation occurs, and it explains why so many B-cell lymphomas carry a rearrangement that drops an oncogene next to the immunoglobulin heavy chain (IGH) locus. The IGH locus is a transcriptional furnace in a B cell, so anything moved under its promoter is massively overexpressed. That single mechanism generates BCL2 in follicular lymphoma, CCND1 in mantle cell, and MYC in Burkitt.

Definitions

Leukemia, lymphoma, and clonality

  • The WHO defines more than 40 types of mature B-cell neoplasm
  • “Non-Hodgkin” lymphoma = every lymphoma except classic Hodgkin lymphoma and nodular lymphocyte-predominant Hodgkin lymphoma
  • Leukemia = involving blood and bone marrow; Lymphoma = involving lymph nodes and/or extranodal soft tissue
  • Many B-cell neoplasms classically present as one or the other, but nearly all can involve both
  • Diagnosis and prognosis rest on immunophenotype / cell of origin and genetics, not the site of involvement

Clonality separates neoplasm from reaction:

NeoplasticReactive
Monoclonal — a single cell produces an expansile clone with an identical antigen receptor rearrangement, independent of antigen stimulationPolyclonal — a mixed population, each with a unique gene rearrangement, responding to various antigens

B-cell clonality is assessed by sequencing the Ig genes, by surface light chain restriction on flow cytometry, or by genetic abnormalities.

Exam trap — clonal does not equal neoplastic

While all neoplasms are clonal, not all clonal processes are neoplastic — and this is especially true in T cells. A vigorous reactive T-cell response can produce a detectable clone without being a lymphoma, which is why T-cell receptor gene rearrangement studies must be interpreted alongside morphology and clinical context rather than taken as proof of malignancy on their own.

Risk

Epidemiology and infectious associations

Predominantly affects adults and elderly patients, and most patients have no known risk factor. Recognized risks are primary immunodeficiency syndromes, autoimmune disorders (Hashimoto thyroiditis, Sjögren syndrome — associated with MALT lymphomas), and acquired immunodeficiency (HIV, iatrogenic immunosuppression in transplant patients).

OrganismAssociated neoplasm
HIVIncreased risk of high-grade B-cell lymphomas
Epstein-Barr virusBurkitt lymphoma; post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorders
HHV8 (Kaposi sarcoma herpesvirus)Primary effusion lymphoma; HHV8-positive large B-cell lymphoma
Hepatitis CType II cryoglobulinemia and lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma
Helicobacter pyloriGastric MALT lymphoma
Borrelia burgdorferiCutaneous MALT lymphoma
Chlamydophila psittaciOcular MALT lymphoma
Campylobacter jejuniSmall intestinal MALT lymphoma

Approach

Diagnosis by size, phenotype, and genetics

SizeEntitiesBehavior
SmallCLL/SLL, mantle cell, low-grade follicular, marginal zone, lymphoplasmacytic, hairy cell leukemiaLow-grade and indolent — sometimes only observation, low-intensity therapy, incurable because low proliferative rates respond poorly to intensive chemotherapy
IntermediateBurkitt lymphomaHigh-grade and aggressivepotentially curable with intensive therapy
LargeDiffuse large B-cell lymphomaHigh-grade and aggressivepotentially curable with intensive therapy

Phenotype is assessed by immunohistochemistry on formalin-fixed tissue and by flow cytometry on fluids and fresh tissue. Genetics uses cytogenetics (karyotype, FISH) and molecular testing for gene mutations.

Why indolent lymphomas are incurable and aggressive ones are curable

This inversion is one of the most counterintuitive ideas in oncology, and it follows directly from how chemotherapy works. Cytotoxic agents kill dividing cells. An aggressive lymphoma is dividing furiously, so nearly the whole tumor is exposed to the drug at once and can be eradicated. An indolent lymphoma has a low proliferative rate, so at any moment most of the clone is sitting quietly out of reach — the tumor shrinks, then returns. The patient lives a long time with the disease but is never rid of it. Mantle cell lymphoma is the worst of both: aggressive enough to shorten survival, yet still too slowly growing to be cured by intensive therapy.

CLL/SLL

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia / small lymphocytic lymphoma

  • CLL and SLL are the SAME disease, named by where it is found — blood and marrow only = CLL (the majority); tissue only = SLL (the minority). Many patients are both
  • Most common leukemia of adults, usually in older patients
  • Discovered incidentally, on a routine CBC showing elevated WBC with lymphocytosis
  • Cell of origin is a naïve B cell
  • Smear: small lymphocytes with very clumpy chromatin and smudge / basket cells

Prognosis: indolent and incurable. Complications include autoimmune hemolytic anemia and hypogammaglobulinemia with reduced normal immunoglobulins leading to infections. Transformation occurs as prolymphocytic progression (10–30%) or Richter syndrome → DLBCL, which presents clinically as rapidly enlarging lymph nodes in a patient with known CLL/SLL.

Exam trap — smudge cells and the autoimmune paradox

Smudge cells are an artifact, not a real cell type: CLL lymphocytes are fragile and rupture as the smear is spread. Their presence is a clue, not a lesion. Second, note the apparent contradiction that a disease of too many B cells causes hypogammaglobulinemia — the clone crowds out and suppresses normal B cells, so the patient has abundant useless lymphocytes and too little functional antibody, hence infection risk. This is the same logic as functional neutropenia in AML. Third, autoimmune hemolytic anemia in CLL links this lecture back to warm AIHA in Lecture 03.

Hairy cell

Hairy cell leukemia

  • Rare — about 2% of lymphoid leukemias; middle-aged to elderly, M>>F
  • Involves bone marrow, peripheral blood, and spleennot associated with lymphadenopathy
  • Patients present with splenomegaly and pancytopenia, notably including monocytopenia
  • Blood: hairy cells. Marrow: diffuse infiltrate of small lymphocytes with “fried egg” morphology and reticulin fibrosis. Spleen: red pulp involvement with blood lakes
  • Essentially 100% of cases carry a BRAF V600E mutation
  • Very sensitive to interferon alpha and purine analogues such as cladribine; many obtain durable remission, though relapse occurs, and BRAF inhibitors and salvage chemotherapy are available
Exam trap — the three negatives of hairy cell leukemia

Hairy cell is defined as much by what is absent as by what is present. No lymphadenopathy — unusual for a lymphoid neoplasm, and it distinguishes hairy cell from nearly every other entity in this lecture. Monocytopenia — a specific and unexpected cytopenia. And a dry tap on aspiration, because of the reticulin fibrosis, so the diagnosis is often made on core biopsy. Pair the red pulp involvement here with splenic marginal zone lymphoma, which is the other lymphoma centred on the spleen, and note that BRAF V600E also appears in Langerhans cell histiocytosis.

FL

Follicular lymphoma

  • Second most common lymphoma after DLBCL, roughly 20%; middle-aged to older adults
  • Asymptomatic with enlarged nodes; widespread at diagnosis with a waxing and waning clinical course
  • Genetics: t(14;18) — BCL2 (chromosome 18) to IGH (chromosome 14), placing BCL2 under IGH promoter control and causing overexpression of BCL2, an anti-apoptotic molecule normally NOT expressed in germinal centers. Detected by FISH or karyotype
  • Cell of origin is a germinal center B cell
  • Prognosis: low grade (1–3A) is indolent and incurable, median survival 7–8 years; grade 3B is aggressive and potentially curable, treated like DLBCL; transformation to DLBCL in 25–35%, with gain of additional chromosomal abnormalities and short survival thereafter
Why BCL2 expression in a germinal center is the whole disease

The germinal center works by deliberately killing most of the cells in it. B cells mutate their antibody genes at random, and the overwhelming majority produce a worse antibody or an autoreactive one; those cells fail selection and are driven into apoptosis. That is why normal germinal center B cells switch BCL2 off — the anti-apoptotic brake must be released for the quality-control system to work, and it is why a reactive germinal center is full of tingible body macrophages clearing the debris. The t(14;18) translocation puts BCL2 back on permanently, so cells that should die instead accumulate. This explains the indolence directly: follicular lymphoma is a disease of failure to die, not of rapid division, which is exactly why it responds poorly to drugs that kill dividing cells. It also explains why the neoplastic follicles lack tingible body macrophages — the contrast with reactive follicular hyperplasia from Lecture 07.

MCL

Mantle cell lymphoma

  • Older adults, M>>F; usually asymptomatic with enlarged lymph nodes
  • High stage at diagnosis — involves lymph nodes, bone marrow, spleen, and extranodal sites, with peripheral blood in about 20%; may produce lymphomatoid polyposis of the bowel
  • Genetics: t(11;14) — CCND1 (chromosome 11) to IGH (chromosome 14), causing overexpression of Cyclin D1, a cell-cycle/proliferative molecule. Detected by FISH or karyotype
  • Cell of origin is a naïve, pre-germinal center B cell
  • The EXCEPTION to the indolent nature of small B-cell lymphomasincurable and aggressive, but still too slowly growing to respond to intensive chemotherapy; roughly 3–5 year survival
  • No Richter transformation — more aggressive histologic variants exist but remain mantle cell lymphoma rather than transforming to DLBCL

MZL

Marginal zone lymphoma and MALT lymphoma

  • About 10% of all lymphomas, with nodal, splenic, and extranodal varieties — the extranodal form being MALT lymphoma, of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue
  • Older adults; involves mucosal and epithelial sitesstomach, eye, skin, thyroid, salivary gland
  • Gastric MALT lymphoma is the most common, with an H. pylori association; triple therapy is often curative UNLESS the lymphoma carries t(11;18)
  • Arises from post-germinal center cells in the marginal zone that infiltrate the nearby follicles
  • Translocations vary by site; t(11;18) (BIRC3::MALT1) is associated with gastric MALT
Why antibiotics can cure a lymphoma — and why a translocation stops them working

Gastric MALT begins as a chronically antigen-driven proliferation. There is no MALT in the normal stomach; H. pylori infection recruits it, and persistent stimulation keeps the B cells dividing until a clone emerges that is still dependent on that stimulus. Remove the bacterium and the clone loses its growth signal and regresses — eradication therapy treats the lymphoma. Once t(11;18) occurs, the clone acquires an autonomous proliferative signal and no longer needs the antigen, so eradicating the organism does nothing. The translocation marks the transition from antigen-dependent to antigen-independent growth, which is why testing for it changes management.

LPL

Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma and Waldenström macroglobulinemia

  • 1–2% of lymphomas, in older adults
  • Arises from a late post-germinal center lymphocyte; the neoplastic population is a mixture of lymphocytes, plasmacytoid lymphocytes, and plasma cells
  • No recurrent chromosomal abnormalities, but a MYD88 L265P mutation is present in >90%
Waldenström LPL in the bone marrow + IgM monoclonal gammopathy hyperviscosity syndrome treat with plasmapheresis
Exam trap — an IgM M-spike is not myeloma

Any monoclonal protein invites the answer “multiple myeloma,” but the isotype decides. Myeloma secretes IgG > IgA > light chain only; an IgM M-spike points to lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma / Waldenström. The clinical consequences differ accordingly: IgM is a large pentamer, so it raises serum viscosity and causes hyperviscosity syndrome treated by plasmapheresis, whereas myeloma produces lytic bone lesions and the CRAB findings. Same laboratory abnormality, two different diseases, distinguished by which immunoglobulin.

Burkitt

Burkitt lymphoma — the intermediate-size lymphoma

Clinical scenarioFeatures
EndemicAfrica, children, jaw mass, EBV-positive
SporadicAdults, mesenteric mass, ± EBV
Immunodeficiency-relatedHIV, post-transplant, ± EBV
  • Aggressive, highly proliferative neoplasm that is very responsive to intensive chemotherapy
  • Patients are at very high risk of tumor lysis syndrome; rapidly fatal if untreated
  • Can present with leukemic involvement
  • Morphology: “starry sky”; Cytogenetics: t(8;14) — IGH::MYC, MYC being an oncogene
Why the starry sky appearance and the tumor lysis risk are the same fact

Burkitt has one of the highest proliferation rates of any human tumor, approaching a doubling time of a day. Cells dividing that fast also die that fast, so the sheet of dark tumor cells is studded with macrophages full of apoptotic debris — pale clearings against a dark background, the “stars” in the “sky.” The same kinetics explain the rest of the disease: it is rapidly fatal untreated, it is highly curable because chemotherapy kills dividing cells, and it carries a very high risk of tumor lysis syndrome because so much tumor dissolves at once, dumping potassium, phosphate, and uric acid into the circulation. MYC is the master regulator of cell growth, and putting it under IGH control is what sets the rate.

DLBCL

Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma

  • Most common lymphoma in the world
  • A very heterogeneous group — the WHO recognizes more than ten large B-cell lymphomas, but DLBCL, not otherwise specified (NOS) is the most common
  • De novo disease presents in older adults with rapidly enlarging localized lymphadenopathy or organomegaly
  • Can also arise by transformation from a lower-grade process — CLL/SLL or follicular lymphoma
  • Aggressive and fatal if untreated; requires intensive chemotherapy for cure, with roughly 70% remission and 40% cure. Prognosis improved with the addition of rituximab, an anti-CD20 antibody

Highest yield

Carry-out points

EntitySignature
CLL/SLLAsymptomatic lymphocytosis, smudge cells, naïve B cell; AIHA, hypogammaglobulinemia, Richter → DLBCL
Hairy cell leukemiaHairy cells, BRAF V600E, monocytopenia, splenomegaly, no lymphadenopathy, red pulp blood lakes
Follicular lymphomat(14;18); IGH::BCL2 — germinal center origin, indolent, transforms to DLBCL in 25–35%
Mantle cell lymphomat(11;14); IGH::CCND1 — cyclin D1; the aggressive exception; no Richter transformation
Marginal zone / MALTMALT sites; gastric = H. pylori, curable with eradication unless t(11;18) (BIRC3::MALT1)
Lymphoplasmacytic lymphomaWaldenström macroglobulinemiaIgM M-spike, plasmacytic differentiation, MYD88 L265P, hyperviscosity
Burkitt lymphomaStarry sky, t(8;14); IGH::MYC; endemic / sporadic / immunodeficiency-related
DLBCLMost common lymphoma; de novo or transformed; curable; rituximab (anti-CD20)
Translocations 11 → mantle → 14: t(11;14) IGH::CCND1 11 → margin → 18: t(11;18) BIRC3::MALT1 14 → follicular → 18: t(14;18) IGH::BCL2
  1. B-cell neoplasms arise from various stages along normal B-cell development and are clonal.
  2. Leukemia = peripheral blood involvement; lymphoma = lymph node/tissue involvement — but most B-cell neoplasms can be both, so classification rests on phenotype and genetics rather than site.
  3. B-cell lymphomas are categorized by cell size, and most small B-cell lymphomas are indolent — the exception is mantle cell lymphoma.
  4. Indolent lymphomas are incurable; aggressive lymphomas are potentially curable, because chemotherapy kills dividing cells.
  5. Burkitt lymphoma comes in three flavors — endemic, sporadic, and immunodeficiency-related — with starry sky morphology and MYC rearrangement.
  6. DLBCL is heterogeneous, arises de novo or by transformation, and is responsive to intensive chemotherapy with possible cure.

Lecture 12 · Torres

Plasma Cell Neoplasms and Related Disorders

Multiple myeloma · CRAB · M-spike · Bence-Jones · MGUS · AL amyloidosis

  1. Define plasma cell neoplasms and related disorders
  2. Understand the clinical findings of plasma cell myeloma, i.e. the CRAB criteria
  3. Explain the principal laboratory findings — monoclonal gammopathy, Bence-Jones proteins, hypercalcemia
  4. Summarize the bone marrow and peripheral blood pathology of plasma cell myeloma

Definition

What a plasma cell neoplasm is

A clonal proliferation of terminally differentiated B cells — plasma cells — that secrete monoclonal immunoglobulin, in the order IgG > IgA > light chain only.

  • Immunoglobulin accumulates in serum and is detected on serum protein electrophoresis as the M-spike. M-spike = monoclonal Ig = paraprotein
  • Immunoglobulin eliminated in the urine is the Bence-Jones protein
  • An IgM-secreting lymphoproliferative disorder is Waldenström macroglobulinemia = lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma, not myeloma

The family of plasma cell neoplasms comprises MGUS, immunoglobulin-related (AL) amyloidosis, heavy chain disease, plasma cell myeloma / multiple myeloma, and plasmacytoma.

Myeloma

Multiple myeloma — epidemiology and pathogenesis

  • Characterized by multifocal osteolytic lesions
  • Accounts for about 1% of malignant tumors and 10–15% of all hematopoietic neoplasms
  • Male > female (1.5:1), and twice as frequent in African Americans as in whites
  • Rare under 50; peak incidence 65–70 years

Etiology and pathogenesis: exposure to toxins and radiation, chronic antigenic stimulation, and IGH gene rearrangement. IL-6 promotes expansion and survival of myeloma cells. Factors produced by the myeloma cells — MIP1α, TNF, IL-1βactivate osteoclasts via RANK.

Bone Myeloma cytokines RANK-mediated osteoclast activation osteolytic lesions bone pain and pathologic fractures + hypercalcemia neurologic manifestations and kidney injury
Why myeloma lesions are purely lytic and do not show on a bone scan

Most metastatic bone disease provokes a reactive osteoblastic response, and a bone scan works by detecting exactly that osteoblast activity. Myeloma is different: the cytokines it releases activate osteoclasts through RANK while suppressing osteoblasts, so bone is resorbed with no attempt at repair. The radiographic result is the classic punched-out lytic lesion with a sharp margin and no surrounding sclerosis — and the practical consequence is that myeloma is imaged with a skeletal survey rather than a bone scan, since there is no osteoblastic activity for the scan to find. The same unopposed resorption dumps calcium into the blood, which is where the C of CRAB comes from.

CRAB

Clinical features and laboratory findings

CRABFindingMechanism
C — CalciumHypercalcemiaOsteoclast-mediated bone resorption; causes neurologic manifestations and kidney injury
R — RenalRenal insufficiencyFree light chains excreted by the kidney deposit in tubules — myeloma kidney
A — AnemiaNormocytic normochromic anemiaMarrow replacement; produces weakness and fatigue
B — BoneBone pain and lytic lesionsPain in the back and extremities; pathologic fractures

Patients also suffer infections due to immune deficiency. Serum and urine assessment for M-protein is essential for diagnosis and follow-up, serving as a tumor marker.

Laboratory and pathologic findings: serum protein electrophoresis showing an M-spike; rouleaux on the peripheral smear; bone marrow biopsy showing a plasma cell infiltrate; and flow cytometric analysis demonstrating a clonal population.

Exam trap — infections despite a huge immunoglobulin level

Myeloma produces an enormous quantity of immunoglobulin, and the patient is nonetheless immunodeficient and dies of infection. The paraprotein is monoclonal — a single specificity, directed at nothing useful — and the expanding clone suppresses normal plasma cells, so functional polyclonal antibody falls. This is the identical pattern seen in CLL with hypogammaglobulinemia and in AML with functional neutropenia: a high number of a useless cell or product alongside a deficiency of the working version. Note too that rouleaux on the smear connects to Lecture 03 — the paraprotein reduces the charge repulsion that keeps red cells apart, and rouleaux must be distinguished from agglutination, which is antibody-mediated.

MGUS

Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance

  • A pre-neoplastic condition
  • M-spike identifiable on serum protein electrophoresis, <3 g/dL
  • Patients are asymptomatic and have <10% monoclonal plasma cells in the bone marrow
  • 1% progress to plasma cell myeloma
Exam trap — MGUS is defined by three simultaneous conditions

All three must hold: M-spike under 3 g/dL, marrow plasma cells under 10%, and no symptoms — meaning no CRAB findings. Breach any one and the diagnosis is no longer MGUS. An asymptomatic patient with an M-spike is common, particularly in the elderly, so the discriminating step in a vignette is to check for hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, anemia, and lytic lesions rather than to react to the M-spike alone.

Light chains

Light chain deposition disorders

AL amyloidosisMyeloma kidney
MechanismFree light chains circulate in serum and deposit in tissues in the form of amyloid → primary (AL) amyloidosisFree light chains excreted by the kidney (Bence-Jones protein) deposit in the tubules → kidney injury
Why free light chains are so much more damaging than whole immunoglobulin

Plasma cells normally make heavy and light chains in balance and assemble them; a neoplastic clone often makes light chains in excess. A free light chain is small enough to be filtered by the glomerulus, which whole IgG is not — so it reaches the tubule, where it precipitates with Tamm-Horsfall protein and forms obstructing casts. That is why light chains, and not the M-spike itself, cause the renal failure in CRAB, and it is why urine testing matters alongside serum: light-chain-only myeloma may have little or no serum M-spike while flooding the urine with Bence-Jones protein. The same free light chains, when they misfold, deposit systemically as AL amyloid.

Highest yield

Carry-out points

  1. Plasma cell neoplasms are clonal proliferations of immunoglobulin-secreting plasma cells, most often IgG > IgA > light chain only.
  2. Symptoms follow the secretion and accumulation of monoclonal proteinM-spike in serum and Bence-Jones protein in urine.
  3. Multiple myeloma is the most important plasma cell neoplasm, defined by multiple lytic lesions and the CRAB criteria — hyperCalcemia, Renal insufficiency, Anemia, Bone lesions.
  4. MGUS is an M-spike under 3 g/dL without symptoms and with under 10% monoclonal plasma cells in the marrow, progressing to myeloma in about 1%.
  5. Free light chains cause AL amyloidosis when they deposit in tissue and myeloma kidney when they deposit in tubules.
  6. An IgM monoclonal gammopathy is Waldenström macroglobulinemia / lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma, not myeloma.

Lecture 13 · Howell

T-cell Lymphomas

Mycosis fungoides · Sézary · ATLL · ALCL · Extranodal NK/T

  1. Know T-cell maturation and phenotype, and the precursor versus peripheral division
  2. Understand why T-cell lymphomas are classified by clinical presentation rather than developmental stage
  3. Discuss the cutaneous T-cell lymphomas — mycosis fungoides and Sézary syndrome
  4. Discuss adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma, ALK-positive anaplastic large cell lymphoma, and extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma

Context

Where T-cell lymphomas sit in the overall distribution

Lymphoma (US and Western Europe)Share
Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma31%
Classic follicular lymphoma22%
Mature peripheral T-cell lymphomas10% total — PTCL NOS 4%, anaplastic large cell 2%, nasal NK/T 1%, angioimmunoblastic 1%, mycosis fungoides/Sézary <1%, enteropathy-type <1%, hepatosplenic <1%, ATLL <1%
T-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma2%

Outcomes are generally aggressive with poorer survivalworse than B-cell lymphoma and Hodgkin lymphoma, with some exceptions. Contributing factors: these are rare so there is limited clinical trial data, there may be intrinsic drug resistance, and patients typically have advanced stage disease at diagnosis.

Phenotype

T-cell maturation and the precursor/peripheral divide

Immature (precursor, thymic)Mature (peripheral, post-thymic)
MarkersTdT, CD1a, cytoplasmic CD3; double positive or double negative for CD4/CD8CD2, surface CD3, CD5, CD7, and CD4 or CD8 (not both)
NeoplasmTdT-positive lymphoblasts — T-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphomaTdT-negative mature T cells — the peripheral T-cell lymphomas

Receptors are either alpha-beta or gamma-delta. Additional general features of T-cell neoplasms: geographical incidence variation with increased frequency in Asia, racial predisposition, HTLV-1-related lymphomas, and cytokine-related symptoms at diagnosis — notably hypercalcemia via osteoclast activating factor and hemophagocytic syndrome.

Why TdT is the single most useful marker in this lecture

TdT is the enzyme that inserts random nucleotides during antigen receptor gene rearrangement, so it is expressed only while a lymphocyte is building its receptor — that is, only in the marrow and thymus. Once the receptor is finished and the cell leaves for the periphery, TdT is switched off permanently. It therefore functions as a timestamp: TdT-positive means precursor, which in practice means lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma and the acute, aggressive, curable-in-children world of Lecture 08; TdT-negative means post-thymic, which means one of the mature peripheral T-cell lymphomas here. The same enzyme does the same job in B cells, which is why TdT marks both B- and T-lymphoblasts without distinguishing lineage.

Classification

Why T-cell lymphomas are grouped by clinical presentation

B-cell lymphomas are classified according to stage of development. T-cell lymphomas are classified according to clinical presentation, because the usual classification markers do not work:

  • Morphology — some have characteristic appearances, but there is striking variability and extensive morphologic overlap
  • Immunophenotype — there is no clear surface marker of clonality (no T-cell equivalent of light chain restriction), and usually no disease-specific T-cell marker phenotypes
  • Molecular geneticsT-cell receptor gene rearrangement establishes clonality; t(2;5) is associated with anaplastic large cell lymphoma
Leukemic / disseminatedCutaneousExtranodalNodal
T-prolymphocytic leukemia
T-large granular lymphocytic leukemia
Aggressive NK-cell leukemia
Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma
Mycosis fungoides / Sézary syndrome
Primary cutaneous CD30+ lymphoproliferative disorders
Subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma
Extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma
Enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma
Hepatosplenic T-cell lymphoma
Intestinal T-cell lymphoma, NOS
Nodal T-follicular helper cell lymphomas
Peripheral T-cell lymphoma, NOS
ALK-positive and ALK-negative anaplastic large cell lymphoma
Exam trap — there is no light chain equivalent for T cells

In B-cell work, surface light chain restriction on flow cytometry is a fast, reliable readout of clonality, because a clone expresses either kappa or lambda but not both. T cells have no such marker, so clonality requires T-cell receptor gene rearrangement studies. Combine this with the caution from the B-cell lecture — not all clonal processes are neoplastic, especially in T cells — and the practical consequence is that a T-cell diagnosis leans much more heavily on clinical presentation, which is exactly why the classification is built that way.

MF

Mycosis fungoides

  • Adults, male:female 2:1; the most common cutaneous T-cell lymphoma; may show dermatopathic lymphadenopathy
  • Cell of origin: mature CD4-positive epidermotropic T cell
  • Progression of lesions: initially non-specific scaly eruptions, then isolated patches usually beginning on the trunk with variable stability over months to years, progressing to generalized plaques which may become erythroderma, then to tumors; extracutaneous spread in end-stage disease
  • Morphology: small to medium T cells with cerebriform nuclei; epidermotropic infiltrates, generally single-cell; Pautrier microabscesses are highly characteristic but present in a minority of cases
  • Immunophenotype: positive for CD2, CD3, CD5, CD4, and CLA (cutaneous lymphocyte antigen); negative for CD7, CD8, and ALK
  • Genetics: clonal T-cell receptor gene rearrangement; complex karyotypes especially with advanced disease, with no specific changes
  • Indolent course but incurable. Limited disease has an excellent outlook with little decrease in life expectancy; extensive disease is poor. Worse prognosis: age >60, increased LDH, large T-cell transformation
StageDefinition
IDisease confined to skin as patches or plaques, without lymph node involvement
IIPatches or plaques with early lymph node involvement, or skin with tumor formation
IIIErythroderma, with no or early node involvement and no or minimal blood involvement
IVProminent blood involvement and/or extensive node involvement and/or visceral involvement
Why loss of CD7 is the diagnostic clue in a difficult biopsy

Mycosis fungoides is notoriously hard to separate from chronic dermatitis, because both put T cells in the epidermis and both can look unremarkable for years. The lever is that normal mature T cells carry the full panel — CD2, CD3, CD5, CD7 — while the neoplastic clone in mycosis fungoides has lost CD7. An aberrant phenotype, meaning a T-cell population missing a marker it should have, is the closest thing T-cell pathology has to light chain restriction. It does not prove clonality, but a CD4-positive, CD7-negative epidermotropic population is strong supporting evidence, and the same CD4+CD7− population is what is counted in the blood in Sézary syndrome.

Sézary

Sézary syndrome

Triad Erythroderma + Lymphadenopathy + Circulating tumor cells in blood (Sézary cells)
  • Rare systemic adult disease, over 60 years of age, male predominance
  • Also pruritus, alopecia, palmar/plantar hyperkeratosis; a subset is associated with UV radiation
  • Morphology: medium T cells with cerebriform nuclei; skin changes similar to mycosis fungoides; lymph nodes show ± dermatopathic changes
  • Blood involvement: classical Sézary cells are large, and more than 1000 per mL of blood are required
  • Bone marrow is remarkably spared — involvement is sparse and usually interstitial
  • Immunophenotype: positive for CD2, CD3, CD5, CD4, CLA, and the skin homing receptor CCR4; negative for CD7, CD8, ALK. Aberrant phenotypes are common, with an increased CD4/CD8 blood ratio >10:1 and increased CD4+ CD7− T cells
  • Genetics: clonal T-cell beta receptor gene rearrangement; complex karyotypes common with no specific changes
Exam trap — a leukemic lymphoma that spares the marrow

Sézary syndrome puts tumor cells in the blood, which would normally imply marrow involvement — yet the marrow is remarkably spared. The explanation is the skin homing receptor CCR4 and cutaneous lymphocyte antigen: these cells are programmed to traffic skin ↔ blood ↔ lymph node, and the blood is their transit route rather than their destination. That is why Sézary is grouped with the cutaneous lymphomas despite being leukemic, and it explains the triad, since erythroderma, lymphadenopathy, and circulating cells are three stops on one circuit.

ATLL

Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma

  • Adults, median 47 years, male:female 1.5:1; widely disseminated disease
  • Human T-cell leukemia virus 1 (HTLV-1)long latency after infection very early in life; transmitted by breast milk, sexual intercourse, or blood products. HTLV-1 alone is not sufficient; additional genetic hits are needed
  • Endemic in Japan, the Caribbean, and Central Africa; sporadic in the USA
  • Cell of origin: CD4-positive peripheral regulatory T cell
  • Morphology: pleomorphic lymphocytes with a high nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio; “flower cells” with polylobated nuclei. Lymph node and spleen involvement; blood and marrow involvement with a leukemic phase common, usually greater than the degree of marrow involvement. Extranodal disease in 50%, especially skin, where Pautrier-like microabscesses occur, plus lung, liver, GI tract, and CNS
  • Immunophenotype: positive CD2, CD3, CD5, CD4, CD25; negative CD7, CD8, ALK
  • Genetics: clonal T-cell receptor gene rearrangement and clonal HTLV-1 integration
  • Prognosis: incurable, variable by clinical variant, survival 2 weeks to years. Causes of death include Pneumocystis, cryptococcal meningitis, disseminated herpes zoster, and hypercalcemia
Acute variantLymphomatous variant
Most common; constitutional symptoms; leukemic phase with high WBC and eosinophils; skin rash and generalized adenopathy; hepatosplenomegaly; hypercalcemia with or without lytic bone lesions. Survival 2 weeks to >1 year Adenopathy without a leukemic phase; cutaneous lesions common; advanced disease; hypercalcemia less common. Survival 2 weeks to >1 year
Why a CD4+ regulatory T-cell origin explains death from opportunistic infection

The cell of origin is a regulatory T cell, whose normal job is to suppress immune responses. Expanding that population enormously produces profound immunosuppression, which is why the listed causes of death are the same organisms seen in AIDS — Pneumocystis, cryptococcus, disseminated zoster — rather than tumor bulk. CD25 is the IL-2 receptor alpha chain and is a normal regulatory T-cell marker, which is why it appears in the immunophenotype. The hypercalcemia comes from the general T-cell mechanism noted earlier: osteoclast activating factor, giving lytic bone lesions that can mimic myeloma.

ALCL

ALK-positive anaplastic large cell lymphoma

  • 3% of all non-Hodgkin lymphoma, but 10–30% of childhood lymphomas; first three decades, male:female 3:1
  • Involves lymph nodes and extranodal sites — skin, soft tissue, lung, liver; bone marrow involvement can be subtle
  • Advanced disease in 70% with peripheral and abdominal lymphadenopathy; patients have B symptoms
  • 5-year survival 80–90%
  • Morphology: large, irregular, bizarre cells spanning a broad spectrum. Hallmark cells are characteristic — large cells with eccentric horseshoe- or kidney-shaped nuclei and a prominent paranuclear eosinophilic Golgi region. Multinucleated wreath cells also occur
  • Immunophenotype: strongly and uniformly CD30-positive in a membranous and Golgi pattern. ALK-positive, and the staining pattern correlates with the underlying genetic abnormalitycytoplasmic and nuclear staining indicates t(2;5). ALCL may be of T-cell or null lineage, and most tumors are CD3-negative, CD5-negative, or T-cell receptor negative. Positive for cytotoxic granule proteins TIA-1, granzyme B, and perforin; EBV-negative and B-cell antigen negative
  • Genetics: 75–80% carry t(2;5)(p23;q35) — the nucleophosmin (NPM) gene at 5q35 joined to the ALK gene at 2p23, producing the NPM-ALK fusion protein. Variant partners in about 25% include TPM3, TFG, ATIC, MSN, CLTC, TPM4, RNF213, and MYH9
Exam trap — a T-cell lymphoma that may express no T-cell markers

ALCL is called a T-cell lymphoma yet most tumors are CD3-negative, CD5-negative, or T-cell receptor negative — the null cell phenotype. Lineage is inferred from clonal T-cell receptor gene rearrangement and from the cytotoxic granule proteins rather than from surface markers, which is a concrete illustration of why the whole family resists phenotype-based classification. Note also that ALK-positive ALCL has an excellent prognosis (80–90% five-year survival), standing out sharply against the generally poor outlook for T-cell lymphomas, and that the ALK staining pattern reports the genetics: cytoplasmic and nuclear means NPM-ALK from t(2;5), because nucleophosmin normally shuttles to the nucleus and drags the fusion protein with it.

NK/T

Extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma, nasal type

  • Epstein-Barr virus is involved in pathogenesis
  • Involves the upper aerodigestive tract; extranasal cases most commonly involve skin; bone marrow involved in 10–15%
  • Necrosis with vascular destruction — the tumor is angiodestructive
  • Asians and indigenous populations of Mexico, Central and South America; adults 35–58 years, male predilection
  • Morphology: variable cell size; cells may contain azurophilic granules; ulcerated mucosal surfaces; pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia
  • Immunophenotype: NK-cell lineage in 66–75%CD2, cytoplasmic CD3, CD56, plus cytotoxic markers TIA-1, granzyme B, perforin. T-cell lineage in 25–33% — CD2, CD3-ε, CD5, CD8, TCR-β, and cytotoxic markers. EBV-positive; clonal T-cell receptor rearrangement only in the T-cell lineage cases
  • Prognosis is poor; extranasal tumors have a poorer prognosis. Adverse factors: elevated CRP, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and a high proliferation rate
Why this tumor destroys the midline face

The neoplastic cells are NK or cytotoxic T cells and they retain their functional cytotoxic machinery — the TIA-1, granzyme B, and perforin in the immunophenotype are not just markers, they are working weapons. The tumor invades and destroys blood vessels, producing ischemic necrosis of everything downstream, which is why the classic presentation is a destructive midline facial lesion and why biopsies are often largely necrotic and must be repeated. Clonality studies fail in the majority of cases because NK cells do not rearrange the T-cell receptor at all — only the T-lineage minority show a clonal rearrangement.

Highest yield

Carry-out points

EntitySignature
Mycosis fungoidesMost common CTCL; patches → plaques → tumors; cerebriform nuclei, Pautrier microabscesses; CD4+, CD7−; indolent, incurable
Sézary syndromeErythroderma + lymphadenopathy + circulating Sézary cells >1000/mL; CD4/CD8 >10:1; marrow spared
Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphomaHTLV-1; Japan/Caribbean/Central Africa; flower cells; CD25+ regulatory T cell; hypercalcemia; death from opportunistic infection
ALK-positive ALCLHallmark cells with horseshoe nuclei and paranuclear Golgi; uniformly CD30+; t(2;5) NPM::ALK in 75–80%; 80–90% five-year survival
Extranodal NK/T-cell lymphomaEBV+; midline upper aerodigestive tract; angiodestructive with necrosis; CD56+ with cytotoxic markers; poor prognosis
  1. TdT separates precursor from peripheral — TdT-positive lymphoblasts are the acute lymphoblastic diseases; TdT-negative mature T cells are the peripheral T-cell lymphomas.
  2. T-cell lymphomas are classified by clinical presentation — cutaneous, leukemic/disseminated, extranodal, nodal — because morphology overlaps, there is no surface marker of clonality, and phenotypes are rarely disease-specific.
  3. Clonality requires T-cell receptor gene rearrangement, and a clonal T-cell population is not necessarily neoplastic.
  4. T-cell lymphomas are generally more aggressive than B-cell and Hodgkin lymphoma; ALK-positive ALCL is the notable favorable exception.
  5. Two viruses drive specific entities: HTLV-1 → ATLL and EBV → extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma.
  6. Cytokine-mediated systemic effects are characteristic — hypercalcemia from osteoclast activating factor and hemophagocytic syndrome.

Lecture 14 · Bhagavathi

Hodgkin Lymphoma

Reed-Sternberg cells · Classical subtypes · NLPHL · Contiguous spread

  1. Discuss the morphological and immunohistochemical features of Hodgkin lymphoma
  2. Discuss the differences between classical Hodgkin lymphoma and non-Hodgkin lymphoma

Overview

What sets Hodgkin lymphoma apart

  • 0.7% of all new cancers in the United States, about 8,000 new cases each year
  • Average age 32 — one of the most common lymphomas of young adults
  • The first cancer to be successfully treated with radiation and chemotherapy; curable in most cases
  • Presents as painless lymphadenopathy, with B symptoms — fever, night sweats, weight loss
Hodgkin lymphomaNon-Hodgkin lymphoma
Site of originSingle node or chain of nodesOften multiple sites
Pattern of spreadSpreads first to anatomically contiguous lymphoid tissuemimics a carcinomaGeneralized lymphadenopathy
Defining featurePresence of Reed-Sternberg cellsDefined by the neoplastic population itself
Why contiguous spread made Hodgkin lymphoma curable first

Because the disease moves predictably from one nodal group to the next rather than seeding widely, the extent of disease could be mapped and then encompassed in a radiation field. That is precisely why Hodgkin lymphoma became the first cancer cured by radiotherapy, why staging laparotomy was historically performed, and why stage rather than histologic subtype is now the dominant prognostic variable. A lymphoma that spreads by contiguity behaves, from a treatment-planning perspective, more like a solid tumor than like the generalized adenopathy of non-Hodgkin disease.

Morphology

The defining morphologic feature

Rare neoplastic cells — Reed-Sternberg cells — in an abundant inflammatory background of lymphocytes, macrophages, and granulocytes, which constitute 90% of the tumor cellularity.

Pathogenesis: in the majority of cases the Ig genes of RS cells have undergone both V(D)J recombination and somatic hypermutation, establishing an origin from germinal center or post-germinal center B cells. The mechanism involves activation of the transcription factor NF-κB, by several routes including EBV infection. The transformed B cells then secrete cytokines, chemokines and other factors that attract inflammatory cells.

Why the tumor is only 10% tumor

This is the central oddity of Hodgkin lymphoma and it follows from the pathogenesis. The RS cell is a crippled germinal center B cell that should have died — it survives through constitutive NF-κB activation, and NF-κB is the master transcription factor for inflammatory cytokines. So the same signal that keeps the malignant cell alive also makes it pour out chemokines, recruiting the lymphocytes, macrophages, eosinophils, and plasma cells that make up the bulk of the mass. The clinical consequences follow directly: the B symptoms are cytokine-driven rather than tumor-burden-driven, and the diagnosis requires finding rare cells in a sea of reactive ones, which is why identification of RS cells and their variants is crucial and why immunohistochemistry matters so much.

Classification

Subtypes and immunophenotype

Classical Hodgkin lymphomaFrequency
Nodular sclerosis70% of HL cases
Mixed cellularity
Lymphocyte-richUncommon
Lymphocyte-depletedUncommon

Separately classified: Nodular lymphocyte-predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (NLPHL).

Reed-Sternberg cells and variants include the classic binucleate form, mononuclear, lacunar, and mummified cells.

MarkerClassical HLNLPHL
PAX5Positive — a B-cell transcription factor and B-cell marker that is not lostPositive
CD30PositiveNegative
CD15PositiveNegative
CD20NegativePositive
OCT2Positive
Neoplastic cellReed-Sternberg cell and variantsLP cell / L&H “popcorn” cell
Exam trap — a B-cell tumor that is CD20-negative

Classical Hodgkin lymphoma arises from a germinal center B cell, yet the RS cell is CD20-negative — it has lost its B-cell program, which is exactly what makes it so morphologically strange. The one B-cell marker that survives is PAX5, which is why it is emphasized as the marker “that's not lost” and why it is used to prove B-cell origin. NLPHL is the mirror image: it retains the B-cell program, so it is CD20-positive and OCT2-positive but CD30- and CD15-negative. Remember the pairing as CD30/CD15 for classical, CD20/OCT2 for nodular lymphocyte-predominant — the two panels are essentially opposite.

NLPHL

Nodular lymphocyte-predominant Hodgkin lymphoma

  • Uncommon
  • Typically a young male with cervical or axillary lymphadenopathy
  • Frequent L&H (“popcorn”) cell variants in a background of follicular dendritic cells and reactive B cells; identification of LP cells is crucial for diagnosis
  • Phenotype: PAX5-positive, CD20-positive, OCT2-positive; CD30-negative, CD15-negative
  • May evolve to T-cell/histiocyte-rich large B-cell lymphoma (diffuse)

Prognosis

Clinical features and outcome

  • Painless lymphadenopathy is the presentation
  • Nodular sclerosis and lymphocyte predominance usually present at clinical stage I–II and are free of systemic symptoms
  • Patients with disseminated disease (stage III–IV), and the mixed cellularity and lymphocyte-depleted types, are more likely to present with B symptoms — fever, night sweats, weight loss
  • With current treatment protocols, tumor stage rather than histologic type is the important prognostic variable
  • Cure rate for stage I and stage IIA is 90%; even in advanced disease (stage IVA or IVB), 60–70% five-year disease-free survival is common
  • Long-term survivors treated with alkylating chemotherapy and radiotherapy have an increased risk of developing a secondary malignancy
Exam trap — the cure creates the next disease

Hodgkin lymphoma is curable in most cases and typically strikes patients around age 32 — which means survivors live for decades afterward and have time to manifest the late effects of therapy. Alkylating agents and radiotherapy raise the risk of secondary malignancy, and this links directly to Lecture 08: alkylating agents are a named cause of therapy-related AML with a complex karyotype and very poor prognosis. The same connection explains why treatment has moved toward reducing radiation fields and alkylator exposure wherever the stage permits.

Highest yield

Carry-out points

  1. Hodgkin lymphoma is defined by Reed-Sternberg cells, which are rare cells in an abundant inflammatory background making up 90% of the cellularity.
  2. It arises in a single node or chain and spreads to anatomically contiguous lymphoid tissue, unlike the generalized adenopathy of non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
  3. RS cells are of germinal center or post-germinal center B-cell origin, surviving through NF-κB activation, which also drives the cytokine secretion that recruits the inflammatory background.
  4. Classical HL: PAX5+, CD30+, CD15+, CD20−. NLPHL: PAX5+, CD20+, OCT2+, CD30−, CD15−, with popcorn (L&H) cells.
  5. Nodular sclerosis is 70% of cases; nodular sclerosis and lymphocyte predominance usually present at low stage without B symptoms, while mixed cellularity and lymphocyte-depleted more often have B symptoms and advanced stage.
  6. Stage rather than histologic subtype drives prognosis; 90% cure in stage I–IIA, and 60–70% five-year disease-free survival even in stage IV.
  7. Long-term survivors carry an increased risk of secondary malignancy from alkylating chemotherapy and radiotherapy.

Lecture 15 · Torres

Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis

S100 · CD1a · Langerin · Birbeck granules · BRAF V600E

  1. Understand the origin of Langerhans cells and their place in the immune system
  2. Recognize the common driver mutations of Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH)
  3. Summarize the clinical spectrum, pathologic features and prognosis of LCH

Origin

The mononuclear phagocyte system

A specialized group of cells of the innate immune system.

CellFeatures
MonocytesOriginate from marrow stem cells via the common monocyte progenitor; circulate in blood; during inflammation release cytokines and migrate to tissues; can differentiate to macrophages and dendritic cells
Tissue macrophagesFound in all tissues; detect and phagocytose pathogens
Dendritic cellsOriginate from marrow stem cells via common dendritic cell progenitors; include Langerhans, indeterminate, interdigitating and interstitial dendritic cells; characterized by projecting cytoplasmic dendrites; process antigens for presentation to T cells
Langerhans phenotype S100+ CD1a+ CD207+ (Langerin) CD4+

Definition

What LCH is, and how it is recognized

  • A clonal neoplastic process of Langerhans-type cells — LCH cells are S100+, CD1a+, Langerin+
  • Incidence estimated at 4–5 per million per year in childhood and 1–2 per million per year in adults
  • LCH cells are large with grooved and folded nuclei and abundant pink, finely granular cytoplasm
  • Birbeck granulesracket-shaped pentalaminar structures identifiable only on electron microscopy, containing langerin

Molecular genetics: BRAF p.V600E, an activating valine-to-glutamate mutation at residue 600, in 55–60% of cases, and detectable by immunohistochemical stain. Less frequent mutations include TP53, RAS, and MET.

Why a Birbeck granule looks like a tennis racket

The granule is not a storage vesicle but a piece of internalized cell membrane. Langerin (CD207) binds carbohydrate on pathogens and is then endocytosed, and langerin's own structure forces the membrane it pulls in to fold into a rigid, zippered, five-layered (pentalaminar) rod with a vesicular dilation at one end — a rod plus a bulb, which is why it is described as racket-shaped. It is pathognomonic for the Langerhans lineage precisely because it is the physical footprint of a protein only these cells express. It requires electron microscopy because a five-layer membrane structure is far below the resolution of light microscopy, which is why CD1a and langerin immunostaining have largely replaced EM in practice.

Spectrum

The clinical spectrum of LCH

Multifocal multisystemUnifocal / multifocal unisystemPulmonary LCH
EponymLetterer-Siwe diseaseEosinophilic granuloma
BehaviorMalignant proliferation with an aggressive courseBenign / indolent proliferationRegresses with smoking cessation
AgeUnder 2 years oldUnifocal: older children and young adults; multifocal: young childrenAdult smokers
FindingsSkin involvement resembling a seborrheic eruption; hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, lung and osteolytic bone lesions; bone marrow failureLCH cells admixed with inflammatory cells, predominantly eosinophils; commonly bone — calvarium, ribs, femur; less often skin, lungs, stomachMost often in adult smokers; BRAF mutation in about 40%
CourseRapidly fatal if untreated; 50% five-year survival after chemotherapyUnifocal lesions may be asymptomatic, cause bone pain or pathologic fracture, and can spontaneously regress. Multifocal lesions in young children give multiple erosive bone lesions, and involvement of the posterior pituitary and hypothalamus causes diabetes insipidus in 50%Regresses spontaneously upon smoking cessation
Hand-Schüller-Christian triad Calvarial bone lesions + Diabetes insipidus + Exophthalmos
Why skull lesions produce diabetes insipidus and bulging eyes

The triad is not three separate diseases but one process in one anatomic neighborhood. LCH has a marked predilection for the calvarium and skull base. A lesion eroding through the sella reaches the posterior pituitary and hypothalamus, destroying the cells that make and release ADH — hence diabetes insipidus, the reason it occurs in 50% of multifocal cases. A lesion in the orbital bones fills the orbit and pushes the globe forward — exophthalmos. So the triad is really skull lesions plus two specific consequences of where those skull lesions sit, which makes it far easier to reconstruct than to memorize.

Highest yield

Carry-out points

  1. Langerhans cells are dendritic cells of the innate immune system and derive from myeloid stem cells.
  2. BRAF p.V600E is the most frequent genetic abnormality in LCH, present in 55–60% and detectable by immunohistochemistry.
  3. LCH is composed of large histiocytoid cells with grooved nuclei and abundant pink cytoplasm expressing S100, CD1a, and langerin (CD207).
  4. Birbeck granules are pathognomonic racket-shaped structures identifiable only by electron microscopy.
  5. Prognosis is worst in multifocal multisystem LCH (Letterer-Siwe) and indolent in unifocal/multifocal unisystem LCH (eosinophilic granuloma) and in pulmonary LCH, which is smoking-associated and regresses on cessation.

Lecture 16 · Howell

Spleen

Red pulp · White pulp · Splenomegaly · Rupture · Infarct

  1. Understand the anatomy and function of the spleen
  2. Know the underlying mechanisms and consequences of splenomegaly
  3. Understand the predisposing conditions that may lead to splenic rupture
  4. Know the common causes of splenic infarct
  5. Be familiar with neoplasms that affect the spleen

Anatomy

Normal spleen — two compartments, two jobs

A lymphoid organ in the upper left quadrant, covered by a thin capsule. The cut surface is deep red (red pulp) with Malpighian corpuscles (white pulp). It is divided into morphologic compartments with different functions — filtration and immunity.

Red pulp — filtrationWhite pulp — immunity
StructureSplenic cords (of Billroth) containing macrophages, and venous sinusoidsPeriarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS) around the central artery, plus lymphoid follicles
CellsMacrophagesPALS = T cells; follicles = B cells
FunctionRemoval of aged red cells, red cell inclusions, and cells with membrane abnormalitiesImmune reaction and antibody production, similar to lymph nodes
Circulation “Closed”: blood stays within vessels — artery arteriole venous sinusoids vein  •  “Open”: blood leaves the capillaries, passes through the cords of Billroth, then enters the venous sinusoids
Why the open circulation is what makes the spleen a filter

Filtration is accomplished through the open circulation, and the mechanism is purely mechanical. Blood dumped into the cords of Billroth must re-enter the sinusoids by squeezing between endothelial cells through slits narrower than a red cell. A healthy, deformable red cell passes; a rigid one — a spherocyte, a sickled cell, a cell stiffened by an inclusion — cannot, and is stranded among the cord macrophages that then remove it or pit out the inclusion. This single anatomic fact underlies a large amount of earlier material: why hereditary spherocytosis is an extravascular, splenic hemolysis; why Howell-Jolly bodies appear after splenectomy or autosplenectomy; why bite cells form in G6PD deficiency; and why the spleen is where antibody-coated cells from warm AIHA are destroyed.

Function

Four splenic functions

  1. Antibody production
  2. Phagocytosis of blood cells and particulate matter — including defense against encapsulated bacteria
  3. Hematopoiesis — during fetal development, and extramedullary hematopoiesis later in life in chronic anemia and myeloid disorders
  4. Sequestration of blood elements — normally one third of the platelet mass is in the spleen; with splenomegaly, 80–90% of platelets may be sequestered
Exam trap — sequestration explains thrombocytopenia without destruction

A patient with a large spleen may have a low platelet count with a completely normal marrow and no antibody. The platelets are not destroyed; they are pooled — up to 80–90% of the total mass held in the spleen rather than the 33% normally there. That is why the count corrects with splenectomy and why hypersplenism is listed as a separate mechanism of cytopenia alongside destruction and underproduction. It is worth pairing with the correct reasoning from Lecture 04: before treating a low platelet count, ask why it is low.

Splenomegaly

Enlargement and congestion

Increased splenic weight — normal is 150 g — which may result in hypersplenism.

Cause of splenomegalyExamples
InfectionInfectious mononucleosis
CongestionSee below
Hematopoietic malignanciesLymphoma, myeloproliferative neoplasms
Autoimmune disordersRheumatoid arthritis, lupus
Storage diseasesGaucher disease, mucopolysaccharidoses

Congestive splenomegaly results from obstruction of venous outflow producing red pulp congestion. Causes are cirrhosis of the liver, portal or splenic vein thrombosis, and cardiac failure. Morphology: the red pulp is expanded and beefy red with loss of white pulp, and fibrosis of vessels and sinusoids when long-standing.

Rupture

Splenic rupture and infarction

RuptureInfarct
Trauma is most common
“Spontaneous rupture” occurs with predisposing conditions causing rapid splenic enlargement:
Infectious mononucleosis
Malaria
Typhoid fever
Lymphoid neoplasms
Ischemic insult due to vascular occlusion; classically a wedge-shaped pale infarct
Arterial thromboembolism
Disruption of blood supply
Sickle cell anemia
Myeloproliferative neoplasms with extensive extramedullary hematopoiesis
Vasculitis
Hypercoagulable states
Why rapid enlargement ruptures but chronic enlargement does not

The spleen is normally protected by a thin capsule and by the rib cage. When enlargement is rapid — as in infectious mononucleosis over days to weeks — the capsule is stretched thin without time to remodel, and the organ also descends below the costal margin where it is no longer shielded by ribs. Minor trauma then tears it. When enlargement is slow, as in myelofibrosis or a storage disease, the capsule thickens and fibroses as it stretches, so a far larger spleen may be far less fragile. This is the specific reason patients with mononucleosis are advised to avoid contact sports, and it also explains why the same infection appears on both the splenomegaly and the spontaneous rupture lists.

Neoplasms

Tumors involving the spleen

CategoryEntities
Splenic lymphomaPrimary: splenic marginal zone lymphoma. Secondary involvement is more common
Myeloid disordersExtramedullary hematopoiesis; e.g. chronic myeloid leukemia
Vascular neoplasmsHemangioma; littoral cell angioma

Highest yield

Carry-out points

  1. The spleen is composed of red pulp (filtration) and white pulp (immunity), with PALS holding T cells and follicles holding B cells.
  2. Filtration is accomplished through the “open” circulation via the cords of Billroth.
  3. Splenomegaly may result in hypersplenism, sequestration of blood elements, and rupture; normal splenic weight is 150 g, and with splenomegaly 80–90% of platelets may be sequestered.
  4. Cirrhosis and heart failure are common causes of congestive splenomegaly due to obstructed venous outflow.
  5. Splenic infarcts are secondary to vascular occlusion — thromboembolism, sickle cell anemia, and others.
  6. Trauma is the most common cause of rupture; spontaneous rupture follows rapid enlargement in mononucleosis, malaria, typhoid, and lymphoid neoplasms.
  7. Hematopoietic neoplasms commonly involve the spleen; the primary splenic lymphoma is splenic marginal zone lymphoma.

Lecture 17 · Randall

Thymus

Hassall corpuscles · DiGeorge · Follicular hyperplasia · Thymoma

  1. Understand the normal anatomy and function of the thymus
  2. Briefly discuss developmental disorders, primarily DiGeorge syndrome
  3. Know the definition and associations of thymic follicular hyperplasia versus true thymic hyperplasia
  4. Introduce thymic epithelial neoplasms — thymomas and thymic carcinoma

Normal

Anatomy and function

  • Arises from the 3rd branchial pouch
  • Critical role in T-cell differentiation and cell-mediated immunity: T cells migrate from the marrow to the thymus, are “educated” to distinguish self from non-self antigens, and mature T cells then migrate to the periphery
  • Grows until puberty, then involutes with fatty replacement
CortexMedulla
Lymphoid cellsImmature thymocytes (T lymphoblasts)Maturing T cells
Epithelial cellsPolygonal-shapedSpindle-shaped
Distinctive structureHassall corpuscle — whorls of medullary epithelial cells with keratin
Why the cortex holds TdT-positive lymphoblasts

The thymic cortex is where T cells are still building their receptors, so cortical thymocytes are TdT-positive, CD1a-positive, and double positive or double negative for CD4/CD8 — exactly the immunophenotype of T-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma from Lectures 08 and 13. This is why T-ALL presents as a mediastinal mass in a teenager: the neoplasm arises where its normal counterpart lives. It is also why an anterior mediastinal mass has a differential dominated by thymic contents — and why a biopsy of a normal thymus, full of proliferating immature lymphoid cells, can be mistaken for lymphoma if the architecture is not appreciated.

Development

Thymic dysplasia, aplasia, and DiGeorge syndrome

  • Incomplete (dysplasia) or complete lack of (aplasia) thymic development, associated with some primary immunodeficiencies — small size, no cortical and medullary zones, no Hassall corpuscles
  • Aplasia = DiGeorge syndrome; Dysplasia = SCID, ataxia-telangiectasia, incomplete DiGeorge
  • Distinguished from acute thymic involution (stress, infection) by the absence of well-formed Hassall corpuscles

DiGeorge syndrome: thymic and parathyroid aplasia or severe hypoplasia, giving markedly decreased T cells; variable defects involving the heart and great vessels; defects in cell-mediated immunity; 22q11 deletion. Thymic cysts are benign incidental findings.

Exam trap — Hassall corpuscles separate a failed thymus from a stressed one

A thymus that is small and depleted of lymphocytes can mean two very different things. In acute thymic involution from stress or infection, the organ developed normally and then shrank, so Hassall corpuscles are present — the medullary architecture was built and remains. In dysplasia or aplasia, the organ never formed properly, so there are no cortical and medullary zones and no Hassall corpuscles. The presence or absence of that one structure separates a reversible stress response from a primary immunodeficiency.

Hyperplasia

True thymic hyperplasia versus thymic follicular hyperplasia

True thymic hyperplasiaThymic follicular hyperplasia
DefinitionEnlargement beyond the upper limit of normal weight for agePresence of secondary B-cell follicles with germinal center formation
MicroscopyNormalB-cell follicles with germinal centers
MechanismFailed involution?Autoimmune association
AssociationsSeen in 65% of myasthenia gravis patients; also systemic lupus erythematosus, Graves disease, rheumatoid arthritis. A few follicles are normal in children
Why B-cell follicles in the thymus are abnormal at all

The thymus is a T-cell organ. It has a cortex and a medulla, not follicles — there is no normal reason for germinal centers, the structures of a B-cell response, to be sitting in it. Their appearance means a B-cell reaction is being mounted inside the organ that selects T cells for self-tolerance, and that is precisely the setting for producing autoantibodies against self antigens. In myasthenia gravis the target is the acetylcholine receptor, and the thymus expresses acetylcholine-receptor-like protein — so the autoantibody is being generated in the very place tolerance to that antigen should have been enforced. It is a failure of the organ's core function, which is why the association is so strong at 65% and why thymectomy can improve the disease.

Tumors

Neoplasms of the thymus

CategoryEntities
Thymic epitheliumThymoma; thymic carcinoma
Hematopoietic elements / lymphomaT-lymphoblastic lymphoma; primary mediastinal (thymic) large B-cell lymphoma; Hodgkin lymphoma
Germ cell tumorsTeratoma

Thymoma — a tumor of epithelial thymic cells. Clinical presentation splits three ways:

Presentation 40% symptoms from impingement on mediastinal structures 40% during evaluation of myasthenia gravis 20% incidental

Patients may also present with other autoimmune disorders or pure red cell aplasia.

Non-invasive thymomaInvasive thymomaThymic carcinoma
DefinitionCytologically benign, non-invasiveExtension through the surrounding capsule5% of thymic epithelial neoplasms; usually squamous cell carcinoma, with more than 10 subtypes
BehaviorClinically benignMinimally invasive: >90% 5-year survival; extensively invasive: <50% 5-year survival18 month median survival
Myasthenia gravisAssociatedAssociatedNOT associated with myasthenia gravis or autoimmune conditions
Exam trap — thymic carcinoma is not associated with myasthenia gravis

The reflex link is thymus → myasthenia gravis, and it holds for thymoma, where roughly 40% of patients have the disease. It does not hold for thymic carcinoma, which is not associated with myasthenia gravis or other autoimmune conditions. The difference tracks how much normal organ function is retained: a thymoma preserves enough thymic architecture and immature T cells to keep generating an aberrant autoimmune response, whereas a carcinoma is a frankly malignant epithelial tumor that has abandoned thymic organization entirely. The prognostic gap follows the same line — >90% five-year survival for minimally invasive thymoma against an 18 month median survival for thymic carcinoma.

Highest yield

Carry-out points

  1. The thymus is the site of T-cell development, arising from the 3rd branchial pouch, with a cortex of immature thymocytes, a medulla of maturing T cells, and Hassall corpuscles in the medulla.
  2. DiGeorge syndrome is an immunodeficiency associated with thymic hypoplasia/aplasia and a 22q11 deletion, with parathyroid aplasia and cardiac/great vessel defects.
  3. Absence of well-formed Hassall corpuscles distinguishes dysplasia/aplasia from acute thymic involution.
  4. Thymic follicular hyperplasia has B-cell follicles and is frequently associated with myasthenia gravis (65%) — contrasted with true thymic hyperplasia, which is enlargement with normal microscopy.
  5. Thymomas arise from thymic epithelial cells, and approximately 40% of patients with thymoma have myasthenia gravis.
  6. Thymic carcinoma is 5% of thymic epithelial neoplasms, is not associated with myasthenia gravis, is usually squamous cell carcinoma, and has an 18 month median survival.

Master review · printable

Lecture-by-lecture review

Lectures 07–17 · orientation + condensed tables

One entry per WBC lecture. Each begins with a short orientation — what the lecture is actually about and the one idea that organizes it — followed by a condensed table of everything testable in that lecture. This is the last-pass layer: read the full sections above first, then use this to check that nothing has fallen out. Nothing here is new material; it is the same content compressed.

Lecture 07

White blood cells and reactive changes — Randall

The “normal responses” lecture: how marrow and lymph nodes react to demand before anything is neoplastic. Every leukemia question secretly asks “could this be reactive?” — and this is where the answer lives. Two habits govern the whole lecture: work from absolute counts, not percentages, and learn what a stressed but healthy marrow looks like so you can recognize when it is not.

TopicDetail
HematopoiesisHSC is pluripotent + self-renewing (both testable); normally marrow-only. Extramedullary hematopoiesis in liver/spleen = fetal program reactivated, either by demand (thalassemia, sickle cell) or by marrow displacement (myelophthisis). Fetal hematopoiesis occurs in the liver.
Reference ranges
(×10³/µL)
Total WBC 4.5–11  •  neutrophils 1.4–6.5 (<0.5 = high infection risk)  •  lymphocytes 1.2–3.4 (T cells = 80–90% of circulating lymphocytes)  •  monocytes 0.1–0.6  •  eosinophils 0–0.5  •  basophils 0–0.2. Trap: WBC 2.0 with 80% lymphocytes = ALC 1.6 (normal) and the patient is actually neutropenic.
NeutropeniaDrug toxicity is the most common causedose-dependent/predictable (chemotherapy; support through it) vs idiosyncratic/unpredictable (certain antibiotics and psychiatric medications; stop the drug). Increased consumption — gram-negative sepsis outpacing supply. Immune destruction — SLE. Decreased production — aplastic anemia, MDS, acute leukemia, severe megaloblastic anemia, myelophthisis (usually with other cytopenias — the clue that the problem is at the source). Rescue with G-CSF / GM-CSF.
LymphopeniaDiGeorge, HIV, increased cortisol (steroids, Cushing), autoimmune disease, whole-body radiation. Cortisol trap: a high-cortisol state produces neutrophilia (demargination) and lymphopenia simultaneously — a patient on prednisone with a high WBC is not necessarily infected.
HLHMacrophage + cytotoxic T-cell activation → IFNγ, TNF, IL-6, IL-12 → shock-like picture plus marrow suppression → cytopenias (cytokines suppress production and activated macrophages eat blood cells). Criteria: fever, hepatosplenomegaly, very high ferritin, elevated soluble IL-2 receptor, decreased NK activity, hemophagocytosis. Most common trigger is infection, often EBV; also malignancy. Poor prognosis — hepatitis, DIC (a complication, not an alternative diagnosis), organ failure. Therapy: immunosuppression + chemotherapy.
Leukocytosis
by lineage
Neutrophilia — bacterial infection (most common), tissue necrosis, high cortisol; look for toxic granulation, vacuolization, Döhle bodies. Lymphocytosis — viral infection; Bordetella pertussis (toxin blocks lymphocyte egress, not increased production). Monocytosis — chronic inflammatory states. Eosinophilia — allergy, drugs, parasites, classic Hodgkin and T-cell lymphomas, Wiskott-Aldrich, hyper-IgE/Job. Basophilia — rare; a red flag for CML / a myeloproliferative process.
Infectious
mononucleosis
EBV (less often CMV), saliva-transmitted; infects B cells, oropharyngeal epithelium (pharyngitis), and hepatocytes (hepatitis). The atypical lymphocytes are reactive CD8-positive T cells, not the infected B cells; splenomegaly is PALS (T-zone) hypertrophy. Monospot detects IgM heterophile antibodiesnegative in CMV disease and during the window period, so confirm with EBV viral capsid antigen serology. Complications: splenic rupture, ampicillin/penicillin rash (not a true allergy), lifelong latency in memory B cells with EBV-driven lymphoma risk if later immunosuppressed.
Leukemoid vs
leukoerythroblastic
Leukemoid: very high WBC, left shift with immature granulocytes, usually monocytosis, toxic changes present, and it lacks basophilia, eosinophilia, and nucleated RBCs; cause is severe infection or malignancy; it mimics CML. Leukoerythroblastic: the same left shift plus circulating nucleated red cells, typically without toxic changes; signals a marrow process. Logic: nucleated RBCs mean the marrow's architectural gate has been breached, since precursors normally must enucleate before exit.
Reactive node
patterns
Follicular hyperplasia (B-cell zone; autoimmune disease, infection, post-vaccination) — polarized germinal centers with tingible body macrophages and intact mantle zones, each the exact opposite of follicular lymphoma. Paracortical hyperplasia (T-cell zone; viral illness). Sinus histiocytosis (nodes draining solid tumors or chronically inflamed sites).
LymphadenitisAcute = tender (rapid capsular stretch); usually infectious; mostly cervical from dental/tonsillar sources; Bartonella cat scratch; abscess makes nodes fluctuant; can revert to normal. Chronic = painless — and the painless node is the worrying one, because a slowly infiltrating tumor expands the node too gradually to hurt.

Lecture 08

Acute leukemias — Randall

This lecture hands you the block's most important number: ≥20% blasts = acute. “Acute” does not mean high count or fast onset — it means the clone is stuck at the blast stage. Chronic means <20% with cells that still mature (CLL = mature B cells, CML = maturing myeloid cells). The clinical presentation is simply what blasts crowd out: anemia → fatigue, neutropenia → infection, thrombocytopenia → mucosal bleeding and petechiae.

TopicDetail
Presentation trapThe WBC is unreliable in either direction — some present pancytopenic, others with a very high count of circulating blasts. Functional neutropenia: blasts cannot chemotax, phagocytose, or kill, so a high WBC does not protect the patient. Look at the differential, not the total.
Four-modality
workup
Morphology — blasts present, ≥20%? Auer rods? Flow cytometry — lineage, because B and T lymphoblasts are morphologically identical. Cytogenetics — karyotype and FISH for translocations, inversions, ploidy. Molecular/NGS — mutations karyotype cannot see, e.g. NPM1.
B-ALLMost common childhood cancer; ~85% of ALL; extensive blood and marrow involvement because B precursors already live in the marrow. Bone pain; more CNS involvement than T-ALL. Markers CD10, CD19, TdT, CD34. Cure 85–90% in children vs 30–40% in adults.
B-ALL prognosisGood: hyperdiploidy (>50 chromosomes), t(12;21) ETV6::RUNX1, age >1 and <10. Poor: hypodiploidy (loses tumor suppressors), t(9;22) Philadelphia, WBC >100K at presentation, infants under 1. Handle: gaining chromosomes is good, losing them is bad.
T-ALLTeenagers with a thymic/mediastinal mass — a lymphomatous presentation, because T precursors leave the marrow early and mature in the thymus. Markers: the CD1a–CD8 series plus TdT and CD34. Cure 70–80%, slightly worse than B-ALL.
Marker logicTdT = lymphoblast (both B and T — not a lineage marker). CD34 = stem/progenitor (positive in both ALL and AML). Lineage markers are CD10/CD19 (B), CD1a–CD8 (T), CD33/CD117/MPO (myeloid).
AML overviewPredominantly adults; extremely heterogeneous. WHO splits into AML with defining genetic abnormalities (including AML, myelodysplasia-related) and AML defined by differentiation. ≥20% blasts; CD33, CD117, MPO, CD34. Auer rods = crystallized MPO = myeloid only — finding one eliminates the lymphoid options without flow.
AML geneticsFavorable: t(8;21) RUNX1::RUNX1T1  •  inv(16) CBFB::MYH11  •  t(15;17) PML::RARA  •  mutated NPM1 (a gene mutation found by NGS, not karyotype). Poor: t(9;11) KMT2A(MLL)::MLLT3 — KMT2A/MLL is bad wherever it appears.
APLt(15;17) PML::RARA; abnormal promyelocytes with bilobed “apple-core” nuclei, heavy granulation, and faggot cells. CD34-negative; MPO, CD33, CD117 positive. Granules contain procoagulants → DIC. Because the lesion is a receptor-sensitivity problem rather than a missing receptor, pharmacologic ATRA overwhelms the block and forces differentiation — the leukemia with an antidote.
Secondary AMLArises from prior MDS or prior therapy. Alkylating agents → latency ~5–7 years, −5/−7 and complex karyotype. Topoisomerase II inhibitors → latency ~1–3 years, KMT2A rearrangement. Worst prognostic group in AML.
Philadelphia
chromosome
Three meanings: in CML it is the defining and targetable lesion; in B-ALL it is a poor prognostic marker; and a lymphoblast crisis of CML is a third setting in which a Ph-positive lymphoblastic picture arises from pre-existing myeloid disease.

Lecture 09

Myelodysplastic neoplasms — Randall

The chronic side of the 20% line holds three categories, and they are split first by the blood count: MPN = cytoses, MDS = cytopenias, MDS/MPN overlap = both. This is the MDS half of that mirror — a clonal stem cell disorder whose maturation defects mean the cells die in the marrow before release. That is ineffective hematopoiesis, and it produces the defining paradox: a hypercellular marrow with empty blood. Production is not the problem; surviving to release is.

TopicDetail
EpidemiologyAverage onset 70; usually an incidental CBC finding, or symptoms of the cytopenias — fatigue, bruising and bleeding, infections. Pathogenesis unknown in most cases; some attributable to prior cytotoxic chemotherapy.
CytogeneticsNo single driver present across the board. Recurrent: −5 / del(5q), −7 / del(7q), complex karyotype (≥3 aberrations).
Dysplasia rule>10% of cells in a lineage must be dysplastic for that lineage to count. Dysplasia is a maturation program started and not finished — ineffective hematopoiesis made visible, which is why it is the diagnostic criterion rather than an incidental observation.
MegakaryocyticHypolobation; multinucleation / “pawn ball” forms.
ErythroidNuclear blebbing, budding, and bridging; ring sideroblasts (iron stacked in mitochondria because it could not be loaded into heme — the same lesion as sideroblastic anemia); megaloblastoid maturation.
GranulocyticHypolobation — pseudo-Pelger-Huët and unilobate forms; hypersegmentation (less common); hypogranulation.
Three marrows,
one pancytopenia
MDS — hypercellular with dysplasia. Aplastic anemia — hypocellular with normal-appearing residual cells. Myelophthisis — tumor or fibrosis occupying the space, with a leukoerythroblastic smear.
Three blast
thresholds
≥2% in blood or ≥5% in marrow = increased blasts within MDS, worsening the score (the marrow threshold is higher because a small blast population is normal there and abnormal in blood). ≥20% in either = AML, no longer MDS.
PrognosisScore = cytogenetics + blast percentage + degree of cytopenias. 10–40% progress to AML; survival ranges from 5+ years in low-risk to under 1 year in high-risk subtypes, and most patients die of cytopenia complications. MDS after cytotoxic therapy has the highest rate of progression and the most rapid course.
TherapyYounger with high-risk disease → allogeneic stem cell transplant, potentially curative. Older or transplant-ineligible → aimed at the cytopenias: hypomethylating agents, BCL2 inhibitors, thalidomide-like agents, ± erythropoietin / G-CSF / thrombopoietin agonists.

Lecture 10

Myeloproliferative neoplasms

The mirror's other half. Adults 40–60; every MPN is a constitutively active tyrosine kinase delivering a permanent growth signal that does not break maturation — one stroke explaining high counts, hypercellular marrow, preserved maturation, normal morphology, and non-increased blasts. The exception is the megakaryocyte, which looks different in each disease and becomes the diagnostic clue. Diagnostic order: BCR::ABL1 first → JAK2 → CALR/MPL → marrow biopsy. Trap: JAK2/CALR/MPL cannot separate ET from PMF — the profiles are essentially identical and morphology decides.

EntityGenetics & criteriaBlood & marrowCourse & prognosis
CML90–95% t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2), the rest variant translocations found by FISH/RT-PCR. Breakpoints: Major (exons 12–16) → p210; µ-BCR (17–20) → p230; minor (1–2) → p190.Blood: left-shifted neutrophilia including myelocytes, absolute basophilia and eosinophilia, absolute monocytosis with relative percentage <3%, platelets normal to increased, no significant dysplasia. Marrow: hypercellular granulocytic hyperplasia, blasts <5%, dwarf hyposegmented megakaryocytes, pseudo-Gaucher cells, increased reticulin. Spleen: red pulp infiltration.50% asymptomatic at diagnosis, 50% splenomegaly; <5% present in blast phase. Untreated → blast phase in 3–5 years; on TKI 80–95% five-year OS. Adverse: 10–19% blasts, ≥20% peripheral basophils, new cytogenetic abnormality, TKI resistance. Blast phase ≥20% — usually myeloblastic, a minority lymphoblastic; extramedullary blasts in skin, nodes, bone, CNS.
PVJAK2 V617F in >95%, exon 12 in a few percent. Criteria — Major: Hgb >16.5 M / >16.0 F (or Hct >49/48); marrow panmyelosis with pleomorphic mature megakaryocytes; JAK2 mutation. Minor: subnormal erythropoietin. Diagnosis = all 3 major, or first 2 major + minor.Normocytic or microcytic hypochromic red cells; neutrophilia with minimal left shift; basophilia rare; platelets normal to mildly increased. Marrow hypercellular with erythroid and megakaryocytes most increased and iron absent; megakaryocytes pleomorphic, hypersegmented, in loose clusters near trabeculae.Median age 60; hyperviscosity — headache, dizziness, visual disturbance, hypertension; thrombosis in 20–25% including mesenteric, portal, and splenic vein and Budd-Chiari; pruritus (mast cells). Rx phlebotomy or hydroxyurea. Median survival >10 years; deaths from thrombosis, hemorrhage, secondary malignancy; cytotoxic therapy raises MDS/AML risk to 10–20% vs 2–3%. Spent phase: loss of the phlebotomy requirement signals fibrosis and failure, with leukoerythroblastosis, teardrops, and organomegaly.
ETMajor: platelets >450 ×10&sup9;/L; marrow megakaryocyte proliferation with large mature hyperlobated (“staghorn”) forms and no significant erythroid or granulocytic increase; criteria for CML, PV, PMF and other myeloid neoplasms not met; JAK2 / CALR / MPL mutation. Minor: a clonal marker, or exclusion of reactive thrombocytosis. All four major, or first three + minor.Isolated thrombocytosis; leukocytosis and erythrocytosis are not typical; mild splenomegaly may be present; less hyperuricemia risk than other MPNs.Slight female predilection; most patients 50–60, with a second peak in the 30s. About 50% asymptomatic; 50% with vascular occlusion or hemorrhage, including Budd-Chiari. Indolent — median survival 10–15 years; some progress to post-ET myelofibrosis; <5% transform to blast phase or MDS, possibly therapy-related.
PMFPrefibrotic majors (all three): megakaryocytic proliferation and atypia without reticulin fibrosis beyond grade 1, with increased cellularity, granulocytic proliferation and decreased erythroid; other myeloid neoplasms excluded; JAK2/CALR/MPL or another clonal marker. Minor (≥1, on two occasions): unexplained anemia, leukocytosis >11 ×10&sup9;/L, splenomegaly, elevated LDH.Prefibrotic: hypercellular; atypical megakaryocytes — clustered, marked size variation, adjacent to trabeculae or sinuses, chromatin clumping, hyperchromatic, bare nuclei; no significant dysplasia; blasts not increased; only mild reticulin. Overt: reticulin grade 2–3, then collagen fibrosis, then osteosclerosis; patchy hematopoiesis. Blood shows leukoerythroblastosis with teardrop cells. The fibrosis is reactive — fibroblasts responding to megakaryocyte cytokines, not part of the clone.Adults 60–70; 30% asymptomatic; found as unexplained splenomegaly, isolated thrombocytosis, or anemia with leukocytosis and/or thrombocytosis. Marrow biopsy is essential. Median survival 3–7 years if diagnosed fibrotic vs 10–15 years prefibrotic; blast phase in 5–30%. Massive organomegaly from extramedullary hematopoiesis — the same myelophthisic squeeze-out as marrow-infiltrating tumor in Lecture 01.
OthersSystemic mastocytosis — c-KIT D816V in >95%. Chronic neutrophilic leukemia — CSF3R T618I. Chronic eosinophilic leukemia — JAK2/ASXL1/TET2/EZH2, with PDGFRA/B, FGFR1 and PCM1::JAK2 excluded.

Lecture 11

B-cell lymphomas — Randall

B-cell neoplasms are frozen snapshots of normal development — the CD profile of the arrest stage names the disease. Most arise in or after the germinal center, the one place a cell deliberately breaks its own DNA while dividing furiously, which is the translocation factory that parks oncogenes beside the IGH promoter. Leukemia = blood and marrow, lymphoma = nodes and tissue, but nearly all can be both, so classification rests on phenotype and genetics, not site. Clonal does not mean neoplastic, especially in T cells. The governing rule: small = indolent and incurable, large = aggressive and curable.

EntityOrigin & geneticsMorphology & phenotypeClinical detail
CLL/SLLNaïve B cell. CLL and SLL are the same disease named by location — blood and marrow = CLL (majority), tissue only = SLL (minority); many patients are both.Small lymphocytes with very clumpy chromatin and smudge / basket cells — a fragility artifact, not a real cell type.Most common leukemia of adults; incidental lymphocytosis in older patients. Indolent and incurable. AIHA (links to Lecture 03) and hypogammaglobulinemia with infections — the clone crowds out normal B cells, the same “useless abundance” as functional neutropenia in AML. Transformation: prolymphocytic progression 10–30%, or Richter syndrome → DLBCL, presenting as rapidly enlarging nodes in known CLL.
Hairy cellEssentially 100% BRAF V600E — shared with LCH.Hairy cells in blood; marrow shows a diffuse infiltrate with “fried egg” morphology and reticulin fibrosis → dry tap, so diagnosis is often on core biopsy; spleen shows red pulp blood lakes.~2% of lymphoid leukemias; middle-aged to elderly, M>>F. Three negatives: no lymphadenopathy, monocytopenia, dry tap. Splenomegaly with pancytopenia. Very sensitive to cladribine and interferon-α, with durable remissions; BRAF inhibitors and salvage chemotherapy for relapse.
FollicularGerminal center B cell; t(14;18) IGH::BCL2 puts anti-apoptotic BCL2 permanently on in the one place it is normally off — so it is a disease of failure to die, not of rapid division.Neoplastic follicles that have lost polarity and lack tingible body macrophages — the direct contrast with reactive follicular hyperplasia in Lecture 07.Second most common lymphoma (~20%); middle-aged to older adults; asymptomatic widespread adenopathy with a waxing and waning course. Grades 1–3A indolent and incurable, median 7–8 years; grade 3B is aggressive and treated like DLBCL; transformation to DLBCL in 25–35% with short survival afterward.
Mantle cellNaïve, pre-germinal center B cell; t(11;14) IGH::CCND1cyclin D1 overexpression, a proliferative molecule.Monotonous small cells.Older adults, M>>F; high stage at diagnosis — nodes, marrow, spleen, extranodal sites, blood in ~20%; may produce lymphomatoid polyposis of the bowel. The exception to small-cell indolence: aggressive AND incurable — too slow-growing for intensive chemotherapy to cure, fast enough to kill, roughly 3–5 year survival. No Richter transformation; aggressive variants remain mantle cell.
Marginal zone
/ MALT
Post-germinal center marginal zone cells infiltrating nearby follicles; translocations vary by site, with t(11;18) BIRC3::MALT1 in gastric disease.Infiltrates mucosal and epithelial sites.~10% of lymphomas; nodal, splenic, and extranodal (MALT) forms. Gastric MALT is the most common, associated with H. pylori, and triple therapy is often curative unless t(11;18) is present — the translocation marks the shift from antigen-dependent to antigen-independent growth. Other sites: ocular (C. psittaci), skin (B. burgdorferi), small bowel (C. jejuni), thyroid and salivary gland (Hashimoto, Sjögren).
LPL /
Waldenström
Late post-germinal center cell; no recurrent chromosomal abnormality, but MYD88 L265P in >90%.A mixture of lymphocytes, plasmacytoid lymphocytes, and plasma cells.1–2% of lymphomas, older adults. Waldenström = LPL in marrow plus an IgM monoclonal gammopathy → hyperviscosity → plasmapheresis. An IgM M-spike is not myeloma — IgM is a large pentamer that raises viscosity, whereas myeloma gives lytic lesions and CRAB.
Burkittt(8;14) IGH::MYC — MYC is the master regulator of cell growth, and IGH control sets the rate.Starry sky — sheets of dark tumor studded with macrophages full of apoptotic debris; near-daily doubling time.Three settings: endemic (Africa, children, jaw mass, EBV-positive), sporadic (adults, mesenteric mass, ±EBV), and immunodeficiency-related (HIV, post-transplant). Rapidly fatal untreated, very responsive to intensive chemotherapy, and very high tumor lysis risk — all one fact, since cells dividing that fast also die that fast. Can present with leukemic involvement.
DLBCLHeterogeneous — WHO recognizes more than ten large B-cell lymphomas, with DLBCL, NOS the most common.Sheets of large cells.Most common lymphoma in the world. De novo in older adults with rapidly enlarging localized lymphadenopathy or organomegaly, or arising by transformation from CLL/SLL or follicular lymphoma. Aggressive and fatal untreated; intensive chemotherapy gives ~70% remission and 40% cure, improved by rituximab (anti-CD20).
Translocation
mnemonic
11 → mantle → 14: t(11;14) IGH::CCND1  •  11 → margin → 18: t(11;18) BIRC3::MALT1  •  14 → follicular → 18: t(14;18) IGH::BCL2

Lecture 12

Plasma cell neoplasms — Torres

The terminal end of the B lineage: clonal plasma cells secreting a single monoclonal immunoglobulin, IgG > IgA > light chain only. Serum shows an M-spike on electrophoresis; urine shows Bence-Jones protein. The family runs MGUS, AL amyloidosis, heavy chain disease, myeloma, and plasmacytoma — and an IgM spike belongs to Waldenström, not here.

TopicDetail
Epidemiology~1% of malignancies and 10–15% of hematopoietic neoplasms; M:F 1.5:1; twice as common in African Americans; rare under 50, peak 65–70.
PathogenesisToxin/radiation exposure, chronic antigenic stimulation, IGH rearrangement. IL-6 drives expansion and survival. Myeloma cytokines MIP1α, TNF, IL-1β activate RANK → osteoclasts while suppressing osteoblasts.
BoneUnopposed resorption with no attempt at repairpunched-out lytic lesions with sharp margins and no surrounding sclerosis, bone pain, and pathologic fractures. Because nothing osteoblastic is happening, a bone scan is negative — image with a skeletal survey.
CRABCalcium — hypercalcemia from osteoclast-mediated resorption, causing neurologic symptoms and kidney injury. Renal — free light chains deposit in tubules (myeloma kidney). Anemia — normocytic normochromic from marrow replacement, causing weakness and fatigue. Bone — back and extremity pain, lytic lesions, fractures.
Light chainsA free light chain is small enough to be filtered by the glomerulus, which whole IgG is not, so it reaches the tubule and precipitates with Tamm-Horsfall protein into obstructing casts. That is why light chains, not the M-spike, cause the renal failure, and why urine testing matters — light-chain-only myeloma may have little serum spike while flooding the urine. Misfolded light chains deposit systemically as AL amyloid.
Lab and
pathology
SPEP M-spike, used as a tumor marker for diagnosis and follow-up; rouleaux on smear (the paraprotein reduces charge repulsion — distinguish from agglutination, which is antibody-mediated, Lecture 03); marrow plasma cell infiltrate; clonal population on flow.
Infection
paradox
Enormous immunoglobulin levels alongside immunodeficiency: the paraprotein is monoclonal and directed at nothing useful, and the expanding clone suppresses normal plasma cells, so functional polyclonal antibody falls. Same pattern as CLL hypogammaglobulinemia and AML functional neutropenia.
MGUSA pre-neoplastic condition defined by three simultaneous conditions: M-spike <3 g/dL, marrow plasma cells <10%, and no symptoms (no CRAB). Breach any one and it is no longer MGUS. ~1% progress to myeloma. In a vignette, do not react to the spike — check for hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, anemia, and lytic lesions.

Lecture 13

T-cell lymphomas — Howell

About 10% of lymphomas, and generally more aggressive than B-cell and Hodgkin disease — they are rare (little trial data), intrinsically drug-resistant, and usually advanced at diagnosis. Two structural ideas run the lecture. TdT is a timestamp: on only while receptors are being built, then off permanently, so TdT-positive means precursor (the lymphoblastic diseases of Lecture 08) and TdT-negative means peripheral. And because morphology overlaps, phenotypes are rarely disease-specific, and there is no T-cell equivalent of light chain restriction, the classification is built on clinical presentation — leukemic/disseminated, cutaneous, extranodal, nodal. Clonality requires TCR gene rearrangement, and a clonal T-cell population still is not necessarily neoplastic. General features: Asian geographic predominance, HTLV-1, and cytokine effects — hypercalcemia from osteoclast activating factor and hemophagocytic syndrome.

EntityPhenotype & geneticsMorphologyClinical detail
Mycosis
fungoides
Mature CD4-positive epidermotropic T cell; CD2, CD3, CD5, CD4, CLA positive; CD7 NEGATIVE — an aberrant phenotype is the closest T-cell pathology comes to light chain restriction. Clonal TCR; complex karyotypes with advanced disease.Cerebriform nuclei; epidermotropic, generally single-cell infiltrates; Pautrier microabscesses highly characteristic but present in a minority.Most common cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, M:F 2:1; may show dermatopathic lymphadenopathy. Progression: nonspecific scaly eruptions → patches (usually trunk)plaques ± erythroderma → tumors, with extracutaneous spread only in end-stage disease. Indolent but incurable; limited disease barely shortens life expectancy. Worse: age >60, increased LDH, large T-cell transformation. Stage I skin only → stage IV blood/nodes/viscera.
Sézary
syndrome
Same CD4+ CD7− population plus CCR4 (skin homing) and CLA; aberrant phenotypes common; CD4/CD8 blood ratio >10:1; clonal TCR-β.Medium cells with cerebriform nuclei; >1000 Sézary cells per mL required; skin changes like mycosis fungoides.Triad: erythroderma + lymphadenopathy + circulating Sézary cells. Rare, over 60, male predominance; pruritus, alopecia, palmar/plantar hyperkeratosis; a subset UV-associated. The marrow is remarkably spared despite leukemic blood — CCR4 and CLA program these cells to traffic skin ↔ blood ↔ node, so blood is the transit route, not the destination, and the triad is three stops on one circuit.
ATLLCD2, CD3, CD5, CD4, CD25 positive; CD7, CD8, ALK negative. CD25 is the IL-2 receptor α chain, a normal regulatory T-cell marker. Clonal TCR and clonal HTLV-1 integration.Pleomorphic lymphocytes with high N:C ratio; “flower cells” with polylobated nuclei; Pautrier-like microabscesses in skin.HTLV-1 — breast milk, sexual, or blood-borne, with long latency after very early-life infection; the virus alone is not sufficient. Endemic in Japan, the Caribbean, Central Africa. Median age 47. Cell of origin is a CD4+ regulatory T cell, so expanding it produces profound immunosuppression — deaths from Pneumocystis, cryptococcal meningitis, disseminated zoster, and hypercalcemia rather than tumor bulk. Acute variant (most common): leukemic phase, eosinophils, rash, generalized adenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, hypercalcemia ± lytic lesions. Lymphomatous variant: adenopathy without a leukemic phase. Incurable; survival 2 weeks to years.
ALK-positive
ALCL
Strong uniform CD30 in a membranous and Golgi pattern; ALK positive, with cytoplasmic and nuclear staining indicating t(2;5). 75–80% carry t(2;5)(p23;q35) NPM::ALK; ~25% variant partners (TPM3, TFG, ATIC, MSN, CLTC, TPM4, RNF213, MYH9). May be T-cell or null lineage — most tumors are CD3, CD5, or TCR negative — with lineage inferred from clonal TCR rearrangement and cytotoxic granule proteins TIA-1, granzyme B, perforin. EBV negative, B-cell antigen negative.Hallmark cells — large cells with eccentric horseshoe or kidney-shaped nuclei and a prominent paranuclear eosinophilic Golgi; multinucleated wreath cells; broad morphologic spectrum.3% of non-Hodgkin lymphoma but 10–30% of childhood lymphomas; first three decades, M:F 3:1. Nodes plus skin, soft tissue, lung, liver; marrow involvement can be subtle. Advanced disease in 70% with B symptoms — yet 80–90% five-year survival, the favorable exception among T-cell lymphomas.
Extranodal
NK/T, nasal
EBV positive. NK lineage in 66–75% — CD2, cytoplasmic CD3, CD56, plus TIA-1, granzyme B, perforin. T lineage in 25–33% — CD2, CD3-ε, CD5, CD8, TCR-β. Clonal TCR rearrangement only in the T-lineage cases, because NK cells never rearrange the TCR at all.Angiodestructive — vascular invasion and destruction with ischemic necrosis; variable cell size, azurophilic granules; ulcerated mucosa; pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia. Biopsies are often largely necrotic and must be repeated.Asians and indigenous populations of Mexico, Central and South America; adults 35–58, male predilection. Destructive midline upper aerodigestive lesion — the cytotoxic markers are working weaponry, not just labels. Extranasal cases most often involve skin; marrow in 10–15%. Poor prognosis, worse if extranasal; adverse factors elevated CRP, anemia, thrombocytopenia, high proliferation rate.

Lecture 14

Hodgkin lymphoma — Bhagavathi

The inverted lymphoma: the malignant cell is rare and the mass is mostly reactive. The Reed-Sternberg cell is a crippled germinal center B cell that should have died and instead survives on constitutive NF-κB — and because NF-κB is the master transcription factor for inflammatory cytokines, the same signal that saves the cell recruits the inflammatory background that makes up 90% of the tumor. That single mechanism explains the histology, the B symptoms (cytokine-driven, not bulk-driven), and why the diagnosis depends on finding rare cells in a sea of reactive ones.

TopicDetail
Epidemiology0.7% of US cancers, ~8,000 cases/year; average age 32; presents as painless lymphadenopathy ± B symptoms. The first cancer cured by radiation and chemotherapy.
vs non-HodgkinArises in a single node or chain and spreads to anatomically contiguous lymphoid tissue — behaviour that made it mappable and encompassable in a radiation field, which is why it was curable first and why stage now outweighs histology. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma involves multiple sites with generalized adenopathy. Germinal center origin is proven by V(D)J recombination and somatic hypermutation in RS-cell Ig genes.
RS cells
and variants
Classic binucleate form (“owl eyes”), mononuclear, lacunar, and mummified cells. Identification of RS cells and variants is crucial to the diagnosis.
Classical
immunophenotype
PAX5 positive — the B-cell transcription factor that is not lost and therefore proves B-cell origin — plus CD30 positive, CD15 positive, CD20 NEGATIVE. A B-cell tumor that has abandoned its B-cell program, which is why it looks so strange.
NLPHLThe mirror image: PAX5+, CD20+, OCT2+, CD30−, CD15−, with L&H “popcorn” cells in a background of follicular dendritic cells and reactive B cells. Uncommon; typically a young male with cervical or axillary adenopathy; may evolve to T-cell/histiocyte-rich large B-cell lymphoma. Remember the pairing as CD30/CD15 for classical, CD20/OCT2 for NLPHL.
SubtypesNodular sclerosis 70%; mixed cellularity; lymphocyte-rich (uncommon); lymphocyte-depleted (uncommon). Nodular sclerosis and lymphocyte predominance usually present at stage I–II without systemic symptoms; mixed cellularity and lymphocyte-depleted more often present with B symptoms and advanced stage.
PrognosisWith current protocols, tumor stage rather than histologic type is the important prognostic variable. Cure rate 90% for stage I and IIA; even in advanced disease (stage IVA/IVB), 60–70% five-year disease-free survival is common.
Late effectsCured at 32 means decades to manifest therapy toxicity. Long-term survivors treated with alkylating chemotherapy and radiotherapy have an increased risk of secondary malignancy — connecting directly to therapy-related AML with complex karyotype in Lecture 08 and therapy-related MDS in Lecture 09, and explaining the move toward reduced radiation fields and alkylator exposure.

Lecture 15

Langerhans cell histiocytosis — Torres

One neoplasm with three clinical faces. The setting is the mononuclear phagocyte system — monocytes, tissue macrophages, and dendritic cells, of which the Langerhans cell is the skin-resident antigen-presenting type. LCH is a clonal neoplasm of Langerhans-type cells, and the whole lecture is learning to recognize the cell and then sorting the three clinical patterns by how many sites and how many systems.

TopicDetail
Incidence4–5 per million per year in children; 1–2 per million in adults.
PhenotypeS100, CD1a, CD207 (langerin), CD4 positive.
MorphologyLarge histiocytoid cells with grooved, folded “coffee-bean” nuclei and abundant pink finely granular cytoplasm, in an eosinophil-rich background.
Birbeck granulesRacket-shaped pentalaminar structures identifiable only by electron microscopy — internalized langerin-bound membrane zipped into a five-layer rod with a vesicular bulb. Pathognomonic because they are the physical footprint of a protein only this lineage makes, but the five-layer structure is far below light microscopic resolution, so CD1a and langerin immunostaining have largely replaced EM.
GeneticsBRAF p.V600E in 55–60% — the most frequent abnormality, detectable by immunohistochemistry; also TP53, RAS, MET. Shared driver with hairy cell leukemia.
Letterer-Siwe
(multifocal multisystem)
Under 2 years old; seborrheic-like skin eruption, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, lung and osteolytic bone lesions, marrow failure. Aggressive — rapidly fatal if untreated, ~50% five-year survival with chemotherapy.
Eosinophilic granuloma
(unifocal / multifocal unisystem)
Benign and indolent. LCH cells admixed with inflammatory cells, predominantly eosinophils; commonly bone — calvarium, ribs, femur — less often skin, lung, stomach. Unifocal (older children, young adults): asymptomatic, or bone pain or pathologic fracture; may spontaneously regress. Multifocal (young children): multiple erosive bone lesions, and posterior pituitary/hypothalamic involvement causing diabetes insipidus in 50%.
Hand-Schüller-
Christian triad
Calvarial bone lesions + diabetes insipidus + exophthalmos. Not three diseases but one process in one neighborhood: a lesion eroding through the sella destroys the cells that make and release ADH, and a lesion in the orbital bones pushes the globe forward. Reconstruct it rather than memorizing it.
Pulmonary LCHMost often adult smokers; BRAF mutation in ~40%; regresses spontaneously on smoking cessation.

Lecture 16

Spleen — Howell

The anatomy lecture that retroactively explains half the course. A lymphoid organ in the upper left quadrant with a thin capsule, normal weight 150 g, whose two compartments do two different jobs — red pulp filters, white pulp responds immunologically. Once you understand the open circulation, the hemolytic anemias, the post-splenectomy smear, and hypersplenic cytopenias all fall out of it.

TopicDetail
Two compartmentsRed pulpcords of Billroth (macrophages) and venous sinusoids; removes aged red cells, red cell inclusions, and cells with membrane abnormalities. White pulpPALS = T cells around the central artery, follicles = B cells; immune reaction and antibody production.
Open vs closed
circulation
Closed: artery → arteriole → sinusoid → vein. Open: blood leaves the capillaries into the cords and must squeeze back into the sinusoids between endothelial cells, through slits narrower than a red cell. Deformable cells pass; rigid ones — spherocytes, sickled cells, inclusion-stiffened cells — are stranded among macrophages and removed or pitted. This is the mechanism behind extravascular hemolysis, Howell-Jolly bodies after splenectomy or autosplenectomy, and G6PD bite cells.
Four functionsAntibody production  •  phagocytosis, including defense against encapsulated bacteria  •  hematopoiesis (fetal, and extramedullary later in chronic anemia and myeloid disorders)  •  sequestration — normally one third of the platelet mass is in the spleen, and with splenomegaly 80–90% may be sequestered.
Hypersplenism trapA large spleen can produce a low platelet count with a completely normal marrow and no antibody. The platelets are pooled, not destroyed, which is why the count corrects with splenectomy — and why hypersplenism sits alongside destruction and underproduction as a separate mechanism of cytopenia. Pair with Lecture 04: before treating a low count, ask why it is low.
SplenomegalyInfection (infectious mononucleosis), congestion, hematopoietic malignancy (lymphoma, MPN), autoimmune disease (rheumatoid arthritis, lupus), storage disease (Gaucher, mucopolysaccharidoses).
Congestive
splenomegaly
Obstruction of venous outflow → red pulp congestion. Causes: cirrhosis, portal or splenic vein thrombosis, cardiac failure. Morphology: expanded beefy red red pulp with loss of white pulp, and vessel/sinusoid fibrosis when long-standing.
RuptureTrauma is most common. “Spontaneous” rupture occurs with conditions causing rapid splenic enlargementmononucleosis, malaria, typhoid fever, lymphoid neoplasms. Rapid stretch leaves a thin unremodeled capsule and drops the organ below the protection of the rib cage; slow enlargement lets the capsule thicken, so a far larger chronic spleen may be far less fragile. Hence the advice against contact sports in mononucleosis.
InfarctIschemia from vascular occlusion — classically a wedge-shaped pale infarct. Causes: arterial thromboembolism, sickle cell anemia, MPN with extensive extramedullary hematopoiesis, vasculitis, hypercoagulable states.
NeoplasmsSecondary involvement is more common than primary. Primary splenic lymphoma = splenic marginal zone lymphoma (pair with hairy cell leukemia as the two spleen-centred lymphoid neoplasms). Myeloid: extramedullary hematopoiesis, e.g. CML. Vascular: hemangioma, littoral cell angioma.

Lecture 17

Thymus — Randall

The organ that educates T cells to distinguish self from non-self. It arises from the 3rd branchial pouch, receives precursors from the marrow, and grows until puberty before involuting to fat. Almost every testable item is a consequence of one of two things — which zone is affected, or whether the organ's tolerance function is intact.

TopicDetail
Cortex vs medullaCortex — immature thymocytes (T lymphoblasts): TdT+, CD1a+, CD4/CD8 double-positive or double-negative, which is exactly the T-ALL phenotype and explains both why T-ALL is a teenager's mediastinal mass and why normal thymus can be mistaken for lymphoma; polygonal epithelium. Medulla — maturing T cells, spindle epithelium, and Hassall corpuscles (keratinizing whorls of medullary epithelium).
Aplasia and
dysplasia
Small gland with no corticomedullary zonation and no Hassall corpuscles. Aplasia = DiGeorge syndrome: thymic and parathyroid aplasia/hypoplasia (decreased T cells plus hypocalcemia), cardiac and great vessel defects, 22q11 deletion. Dysplasia occurs in SCID, ataxia-telangiectasia, and incomplete DiGeorge. Thymic cysts are benign incidental findings.
Hassall trapA small, lymphocyte-depleted thymus means two different things. Corpuscles present = acute stress involution — the organ was built normally and then shrank, and it is reversible. Corpuscles absent = the organ never formed properly — a primary immunodeficiency. One structure separates the two.
HyperplasiaTrue thymic hyperplasia — enlargement beyond the upper limit of normal weight for age, with normal microscopy; mechanism possibly failed involution. Thymic follicular hyperplasiasecondary B-cell follicles with germinal centers inside a T-cell organ, which is abnormal by definition: a B-cell response mounted inside the organ that enforces self-tolerance. Seen in 65% of myasthenia gravis patients (the thymus expresses acetylcholine-receptor-like protein, so the autoantibody is generated where tolerance should have been enforced — hence thymectomy helps), also SLE, Graves disease, rheumatoid arthritis. A few follicles are normal in children.
Tumor categoriesThymic epithelium — thymoma, thymic carcinoma. Hematopoietic — T-lymphoblastic lymphoma, primary mediastinal (thymic) large B-cell lymphoma, Hodgkin lymphoma. Germ cell — teratoma.
ThymomaA tumor of thymic epithelial cells (the lymphocytes present are reactive). Presentation splits 40% mediastinal impingement / 40% during myasthenia gravis evaluation / 20% incidental; also other autoimmune disorders and pure red cell aplasia. Prognosis tracks invasion, not cytology: non-invasive is clinically benign; minimally invasive >90% five-year survival; extensively invasive <50%.
Thymic carcinoma5% of thymic epithelial neoplasms, usually squamous cell carcinoma with more than ten subtypes. NOT associated with myasthenia gravis or other autoimmune conditions — it has abandoned thymic organization entirely, whereas a thymoma retains enough architecture and immature T cells to keep generating the aberrant response. 18 month median survival.

Self-test · answers hidden

Question bank

All lectures, mixed

Questions are grouped by lecture but numbered continuously across the whole bank. Every item is written in board style — a clinical vignette, a single best answer, and four distractors that are each real entities chosen to be plausible. Headers are here so you can drill one lecture at a time — if you want the blind-mixed experience, scroll past the headers and work straight through. Renumber sequentially as you add more.

Lecture 01 · Randall

Anemias of Diminished Production

Questions 1–12

1A 58-year-old woman with a 12-year history of rheumatoid arthritis has a hemoglobin of 9.8 g/dL and an MCV of 84 fL. Serum iron is 28 µg/dL and transferrin saturation is 11%.Which additional laboratory result would best support anemia of chronic disease rather than iron deficiency?

  • ASerum ferritin of 8 ng/mL
  • BElevated free erythrocyte protoporphyrin
  • CTotal iron binding capacity of 470 µg/dL
  • DRed cell distribution width of 18.4%
  • ESerum ferritin of 240 ng/mL
Answer

E

Both conditions produce a low serum iron and low saturation, so those values cannot separate them. Ferritin is the discriminator: it is elevated in ACD, where hepcidin traps iron inside macrophages and enterocytes, and low in IDA, where stores are genuinely gone. A points the opposite way. C is also an IDA pattern — TIBC rises in IDA and falls in ACD. D is nonspecific and, if anything, favors IDA, since a widened distribution reflects new small cells mixing with older normal ones. B is the most tempting: free erythrocyte protoporphyrin is elevated in both conditions, because in each case protoporphyrin is made but cannot be paired with iron, so it carries no discriminating value.

2A 44-year-old man with alcohol use disorder has a hemoglobin of 10.2 g/dL and an MCV of 78 fL. The peripheral smear shows coarse basophilic stippling, and a marrow iron stain demonstrates ringed sideroblasts.Which set of iron studies is most consistent with this diagnosis?

  • ALow ferritin, high TIBC, low serum iron, low saturation
  • BHigh ferritin, low TIBC, low serum iron, low saturation
  • CNormal ferritin, high TIBC, normal serum iron, low saturation
  • DHigh ferritin, low TIBC, high serum iron, high saturation
  • ELow ferritin, low TIBC, low serum iron, normal saturation
Answer

D

Sideroblastic anemia is a failure of protoporphyrin synthesis, not of iron supply. Iron arrives normally and then has nowhere to go, so it accumulates — producing the one microcytic anemia with an iron overload profile: high ferritin, high serum iron, and high saturation, with a low TIBC. A is the classic iron deficiency pattern and B is anemia of chronic disease; both are microcytic, which is what makes them plausible here. C is the pattern described for pregnancy, where TIBC rises and saturation falls without true depletion. The ringed sideroblasts in the stem are iron-laden mitochondria — a direct visual statement that iron is present and unusable.

3A 4-year-old child living in pre-1978 housing has a microcytic anemia, abdominal pain, and coarse basophilic stippling on the peripheral smear. Marrow examination shows ringed sideroblasts.Which pair of enzymes is inhibited by the responsible agent?

  • AALA synthase and ferrochelatase
  • BALA synthase and ALA dehydratase
  • CALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase
  • DFerrochelatase and methionine synthase
  • EALA synthase and methylmalonyl-CoA mutase
Answer

C

Lead inhibits ALA dehydratase — the cytoplasmic step immediately after ALA synthase — and ferrochelatase, the terminal step that inserts ferrous iron into protoporphyrin. A convenient way to hold it: lead hits the second and last enzymes of the pathway. A and B are the common errors, both substituting ALA synthase, which is the first and rate-limiting mitochondrial step and the one relevant to vitamin B6, since B6 is its cofactor. D and E append enzymes from B12 and folate metabolism, which belong to the macrocytic anemias and have no role in heme synthesis.

4A 34-year-old man being treated for latent tuberculosis develops a microcytic anemia. Marrow examination shows ringed sideroblasts. The anemia resolves after a vitamin supplement is added to his regimen.Which mechanism best explains the anemia?

  • AThe drug chelates iron within the duodenal lumen, preventing absorption
  • BThe drug inhibits ferrochelatase, blocking insertion of iron into protoporphyrin
  • CThe drug depletes pyridoxine, the cofactor required by ALA synthase
  • DThe drug suppresses renal erythropoietin production
  • EThe drug induces an antibody against erythroid precursors
Answer

C

Isoniazid causes a pyridoxine (B6) deficiency, and B6 is the cofactor for ALA synthase, the rate-limiting first step of heme synthesis. Blocking that step gives a sideroblastic anemia that is treatable and preventable with B6, which is exactly what the stem describes when the anemia resolves after a vitamin is added. B describes the mechanism of lead, not isoniazid, and lead poisoning would not respond to a vitamin. D would produce a normocytic anemia of renal failure. A and E describe processes that do not produce ringed sideroblasts, which specifically indicate iron accumulating in mitochondria because protoporphyrin synthesis has failed.

5A 32-year-old woman with menorrhagia has a hemoglobin of 11.8 g/dL, an MCV of 88 fL, and a red cell distribution width of 17.5%. Serum ferritin is 11 ng/mL.Which best explains the elevated RDW despite a normal MCV?

  • AReticulocytosis from marrow compensation is enlarging a subset of cells
  • BOlder normal-sized cells still circulate alongside newly formed smaller cells
  • CA coexisting folate deficiency is producing a macrocytic subpopulation
  • DRed cell fragmentation is generating schistocytes of variable size
  • ETarget cell formation artifactually widens the measured volume distribution
Answer

B

RDW measures variation in cell size, and it moves before the mean does. As iron runs out, the marrow begins releasing small cells while the normal-sized population made earlier is still in circulation for its remaining lifespan. Two populations coexist, so the distribution widens while the average stays inside the reference range — making a high RDW with a normal MCV an early sign of iron deficiency. The low ferritin confirms it. A, C, and D are all genuine causes of an elevated RDW in other settings, which is what makes them plausible, but none is supported here: there is no evidence of hemolysis, no macrocytic indices, and no schistocytes described.

6A 61-year-old woman has a macrocytic anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils and glossitis. Serum homocysteine is elevated.Which finding would most reliably establish vitamin B12 deficiency rather than folate deficiency as the cause?

  • AAn MCV above 110 fL
  • BHypersegmented neutrophils on the peripheral smear
  • CA markedly elevated serum homocysteine level
  • DAn elevated serum methylmalonic acid level
  • EThe presence of glossitis
Answer

D

The hematologic pictures are identical — same macrocytosis, same hypersegmented neutrophils, same glossitis, same elevated homocysteine — because both vitamins feed the same DNA-synthesis step. That eliminates A, B, C, and E as discriminators, and every one of them is listed in the stem or is a feature of both deficiencies. Only two things separate the two conditions: methylmalonic acid and neurologic findings, both present in B12 deficiency and absent in folate deficiency.

7A student is asked why methylmalonic acid accumulates in vitamin B12 deficiency but remains normal in folate deficiency.Which explanation is correct?

  • AB12 is required for methylmalonyl-CoA mutase, a reaction independent of folate
  • BB12 is required for methionine synthase, a reaction that folate does not participate in
  • CMethylmalonic acid is a direct byproduct of homocysteine remethylation
  • DFolate deficiency accelerates renal clearance of methylmalonic acid
  • EFolate is the cofactor for methylmalonyl-CoA mutase, and B12 is not
Answer

A

B12 has two jobs. As methyl-B12 it runs methionine synthase, and folate is a partner in that reaction — which is precisely why losing either vitamin raises homocysteine and impairs DNA synthesis, giving identical blood findings. As adenosyl-B12 it separately runs methylmalonyl-CoA mutase in the mitochondrion, a pathway folate has nothing to do with. Lose B12 and methylmalonyl-CoA backs up as MMA. B is the most attractive wrong answer because it names a real B12-dependent enzyme — but methionine synthase is the reaction folate does share, so it cannot explain a difference between the two. E inverts the cofactor relationship. The same mitochondrial pathway is implicated in the neurologic damage, which is why MMA and neurologic findings travel together.

8A 62-year-old woman has a hemoglobin of 8.9 g/dL with an MCV of 118 fL, elevated methylmalonic acid, elevated homocysteine, and impaired vibration sense in both feet.Which underlying process is the most likely cause?

  • AProlonged inadequate dietary intake of leafy vegetables
  • BAutoimmune destruction of gastric parietal cells
  • CPrior resection of the terminal ileum
  • DChronic pancreatic exocrine insufficiency
  • EChronic infection with Diphyllobothrium latum
Answer

B

The elevated MMA and the neurologic findings establish B12 deficiency rather than folate, which eliminates A. Among causes of B12 deficiency, the question asks for the most likely, and the answer is pernicious anemia — autoimmune destruction of parietal cells eliminating intrinsic factor, which is required for B12 absorption in the small bowel. C, D, and E are all genuine causes of B12 deficiency and are the reason this question is not a giveaway: terminal ileal disease removes the absorptive site, pancreatic insufficiency impairs release of B12 from its carrier protein, and the fish tapeworm competes for the vitamin. All are real; none is common.

9A 29-year-old woman has a hemoglobin of 8.0 g/dL and a hematocrit of 24% (normal 45%). Her reticulocyte count is reported as 6%.Which conclusion about the marrow is best supported?

  • AThe response is appropriate, indicating destruction or blood loss
  • BThe response is inadequate, indicating a production defect
  • CThe raw percentage cannot be interpreted without the MCV
  • DThe result is diagnostic of aplastic anemia
  • EThe result indicates an appropriate response only if the MCV is elevated
Answer

A

The raw percentage is misleading because the denominator has shrunk — in anemia, a fixed number of reticulocytes represents a larger fraction of a smaller total. Correcting for that gives RI = 6 × (24/45) ≈ 3.2. An index above 3 indicates the marrow is responding appropriately, which shifts the differential toward hemolysis or blood loss and away from the production failures. B describes an index below 2. C and E invoke the MCV, which classifies the anemia by size but plays no part in the correction, which uses hematocrit. D contradicts the calculation entirely, since aplastic anemia would show a profoundly suppressed index.

10A 66-year-old man with metastatic prostate carcinoma is found to have a hemoglobin of 8.4 g/dL, a white cell count of 3.1 ×10³/µL, and a platelet count of 74 ×10³/µL.Which peripheral smear finding would most support marrow infiltration as the cause?

  • AHypersegmented neutrophils
  • BProminent rouleaux formation
  • CBite cells with Heinz bodies on supravital stain
  • DNucleated red blood cells with immature granulocytes
  • EAn unremarkable smear apart from the reduced cell numbers
Answer

D

Both aplastic anemia and a myelophthisic process produce pancytopenia, so the counts alone do not separate them — the smear does. When tumor physically crowds the marrow, precursors are squeezed into the circulation before they should be, giving nucleated red cells and immature granulocytes. E is the pattern of aplastic anemia, where the marrow is empty rather than crowded and the surviving cells look normal; it is the intended contrast. A points to megaloblastic anemia, C to oxidative hemolysis, and B to a paraproteinemia — each a real smear finding attached to a different disease.

11An 8-year-old with sickle cell anemia whose baseline hemoglobin is 8.5 g/dL presents with a hemoglobin of 4.2 g/dL and a reticulocyte count of 0.2%. Parvovirus B19 IgM is positive.Which best explains why this infection produced such a severe drop in hemoglobin?

  • AThe virus directly lyses circulating mature red cells throughout the vasculature
  • BThe virus triggers an autoimmune hemolytic process directed at red cell antigens
  • CShortened red cell survival makes the patient dependent on continuous marrow output
  • DConcurrent splenic sequestration is trapping red cells
  • EThe virus induces hypersplenism with accelerated clearance of otherwise normal red cells
Answer

C

Parvovirus B19 infects erythroid precursors and shuts down production for a week or two — which the suppressed reticulocyte count confirms. In a normal host with a 120-day red cell lifespan, losing production briefly barely registers. In sickle cell disease the cells survive only days, and the patient is compensated only because the marrow runs at maximum output continuously. Remove production from a system with short cell survival and the hemoglobin falls almost immediately. A is wrong because the virus targets precursors, not circulating cells. B, D, and E all describe increased destruction, which the near-zero reticulocyte count argues against — this is a production failure.

12A 47-year-old woman reports difficulty swallowing solid food. Examination shows a smooth beefy-red tongue and spoon-shaped nails. Hemoglobin is 9.1 g/dL with an MCV of 71 fL.Which additional finding is most expected?

  • AElevated serum methylmalonic acid
  • BSerum ferritin of 340 ng/mL
  • CSerum ferritin of 6 ng/mL
  • DRinged sideroblasts on marrow iron stain
  • EA normal RDW with an elevated red cell count
Answer

C

Dysphagia from esophageal webs, atrophic glossitis, and a microcytic anemia together are Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and the underlying lesion is iron deficiency — so ferritin is low. Koilonychia in the stem is a further iron-deficiency sign, as is pica. B would suggest anemia of chronic disease or an iron-overload state. A belongs to B12 deficiency, which is macrocytic. D indicates sideroblastic anemia, the microcytic anemia with high rather than low iron stores. E describes the thalassemia pattern — uniform microcytosis with plenty of cells — and is the single best distractor here, since thalassemia is the other microcytic anemia that presents with a low MCV in a young adult.

Lecture 02 · Tayal

Hemolytic Anemias, Part 1

Questions 13–23

13A 27-year-old man has a hemoglobin of 9.2 g/dL, a reticulocyte count of 8%, an elevated LDH, and an unconjugated bilirubin of 3.1 mg/dL.Which additional finding would best indicate that the hemolysis is intravascular rather than extravascular?

  • ASplenomegaly with left upper quadrant tenderness
  • BAn undetectable serum haptoglobin with hemoglobinuria
  • CA further rise in serum lactate dehydrogenase
  • DPolychromasia with nucleated red cells on the smear
  • EA further rise in unconjugated bilirubin with scleral icterus
Answer

B

Everything in the stem — reticulocytosis, elevated LDH, unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia — proves hemolysis but does not localize it, because all of it occurs in both patterns. C, D, and E simply restate findings already present and shared. A points the other way, since splenomegaly is a feature of extravascular destruction. Haptoglobin is the localizer: it binds hemoglobin free in plasma, so it is consumed heavily only when cells lyse directly into the bloodstream. In extravascular hemolysis the contents are degraded inside a macrophage and haptoglobin is only modestly reduced. Hemoglobinuria follows the same logic, requiring free plasma hemoglobin to exceed haptoglobin's binding capacity.

14A 24-year-old man of northern European descent has intermittent jaundice, splenomegaly, and pigment gallstones. His MCV is 84 fL, MCHC is 36.8 g/dL, and RDW is 16.5%.Which best explains the elevated MCHC?

  • AIncreased hemoglobin synthesis per cell
  • BRed cell agglutination interfering with the automated measurement
  • CReticulocytosis raising the mean corpuscular hemoglobin
  • DRedundant membrane in target cells
  • ECellular dehydration from loss of potassium and water
Answer

E

In hereditary spherocytosis the cell loses membrane and lipid bilayer, then loses potassium and water, so the same quantity of hemoglobin occupies a smaller volume. MCHC is a ratio, so that modest volume loss pushes it detectably above range, while the MCV — an absolute value with a wide 80–100 normal range — usually stays inside it. That is why HS is classified as normocytic even though the cells look small and dense on a smear. A is wrong because hemoglobin content per cell is not increased; the cell is smaller. C would raise the MCV, not the MCHC, since reticulocytes are large. D describes cells with excess membrane, which lowers MCHC. B is a genuine cause of a spuriously high MCHC, but it occurs with cold agglutinins, and nothing here suggests that.

15A 31-year-old woman has a hemolytic anemia with numerous spherocytes on the peripheral smear.Which test best distinguishes hereditary spherocytosis from warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

  • ADirect antiglobulin test
  • BOsmotic fragility testing
  • CSerum haptoglobin
  • DReticulocyte count
  • EHemoglobin electrophoresis
Answer

A

Spherocytes appear in both conditions and are formed by the same mechanical route — membrane is lost and the cell rounds up — so morphology cannot separate them. The DAT asks the one question that does: is antibody or complement bound to the cell? Positive points to an immune cause; negative with spherocytes points to hereditary spherocytosis. B is the key distractor and a common error: osmotic fragility is abnormal in both, because it detects the shape rather than the cause — any spherocyte lyses early since it has no spare membrane to expand into. C and D confirm and quantify hemolysis without addressing mechanism. E detects abnormal hemoglobins, which are not involved in either disorder.

16A 22-year-old man of African ancestry develops jaundice and dark urine three days after starting trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Hemoglobin is 8.1 g/dL. A G6PD enzyme assay performed that day returns within the normal range.Which best explains this result?

  • AThe diagnosis is excluded, and an autoimmune hemolytic process should be pursued instead
  • BA concurrent folate deficiency is masking the underlying enzyme deficiency
  • CThe assay is unreliable in males because the responsible gene is X-linked recessive
  • DSulfonamide metabolites directly interfere with the enzymatic assay itself
  • EOlder, more deficient cells have already lysed, leaving reticulocytes with higher activity
Answer

E

The abnormal G6PD protein misfolds and is degraded over time, so enzyme activity falls as a cell ages and the oldest cells are the most deficient. Those are exactly the cells destroyed first during an oxidant challenge. What remains in circulation immediately afterward is a young, reticulocyte-rich population with higher-than-representative activity, which can push the assay into the normal range. Repeating it weeks later, once the population has aged, is the correct approach. A abandons a diagnosis the clinical picture supports strongly — the timing after a sulfa drug is classic. C inverts the genetics: X-linked recessive inheritance is why the disorder is expressed in males. D and B invoke interference and masking effects that do not occur.

17A 19-year-old man develops an acute hemolytic episode after eating fava beans. The smear shows bite cells, and supravital staining reveals intracellular inclusions.Which sequence best describes the mechanism of red cell injury?

  • AReduced NADH allows methemoglobin to accumulate, progressively impairing oxygen delivery
  • BReduced ATP causes membrane pump failure, cellular swelling, and eventual osmotic lysis
  • CReduced NADPH depletes reduced glutathione, allowing peroxide to denature hemoglobin
  • DGlutathione depletion permits complement activation and membrane attack complex formation
  • EReduced pyruvate kinase activity lowers ATP and progressively impairs deformability
Answer

C

G6PD is the entry point to the hexose monophosphate shunt, which is the red cell's only source of NADPH. NADPH regenerates reduced glutathione, and reduced glutathione plus glutathione peroxidase is what removes hydrogen peroxide. Lose the enzyme and that entire antioxidant chain collapses, so oxidants denature hemoglobin into membrane-bound precipitates — Heinz bodies — which splenic macrophages pluck out, taking a piece of membrane and leaving a bite cell. B and E describe pyruvate kinase deficiency, the other red cell enzymopathy, where the failure is energetic rather than oxidative. A describes methemoglobinemia, a different consequence of oxidant stress. D inserts complement, which has no role here.

18A newborn screening result shows hemoglobin SS.Which molecular change is responsible?

  • AA chain terminator mutation abolishing β-globin production
  • BA point mutation at the 6th codon of β-globin substituting lysine for glutamate
  • CDeletion of two of the four α-globin genes
  • DA splice-site mutation reducing the quantity of β-globin produced
  • EA point mutation at the 6th codon of β-globin substituting valine for glutamate
Answer

E

Sickle hemoglobin is HbS = α2βS2, produced by a point mutation in the 6th codon of the β-globin gene replacing glutamate with valine. The change in protein charge alters electrophoretic mobility, which is what makes hemoglobin electrophoresis diagnostic. B is the single best distractor because it is the correct codon and the correct gene but the wrong substitution — glutamate to lysine at that same position gives HbC, another β-globin disorder. C describes α-thalassemia. D and A are the β+ and β0 thalassemia mutations, which reduce the amount of a normal globin rather than producing an abnormal one — the definitional line between a thalassemia and a hemoglobinopathy.

19A 21-year-old with sickle cell disease is counseled that maintaining good hydration is part of routine management.Which best explains why dehydration worsens this disease?

  • AIt raises the MCHC, favoring HbS polymerization
  • BIt lowers hemoglobin F levels within the red cell
  • CIt promotes splenic sequestration of circulating red cells
  • DIt increases plasma viscosity independently of the red cell
  • EIt raises the oxygen affinity of HbS at low tension
Answer

A

Sickling itself drives potassium and water out of the cell, raising the MCHC. A higher intracellular hemoglobin concentration makes polymerization more likely at the next deoxygenation, so each sickling event makes the next one easier — a self-amplifying cycle ending in irreversibly sickled cells. Any additional dehydration feeds directly into that loop, which is why avoiding dehydration is listed as a treatment goal alongside raising HbF and lowering the HbS percentage. B is wrong because HbF is determined by gene expression, not hydration status. D is superficially reasonable and does happen, but the mechanism that matters here is intracellular. E misstates the effect and would, if anything, reduce deoxygenation.

20A 19-year-old with sickle cell disease has Howell-Jolly bodies on the peripheral smear and a small, calcified spleen on imaging.Which organism poses the greatest risk to this patient?

  • AEscherichia coli
  • BStaphylococcus aureus
  • CStreptococcus pneumoniae
  • DPseudomonas aeruginosa
  • EListeria monocytogenes
Answer

C

Repeated infarction leaves the spleen small, shrunken, fibrotic, and non-functional — autosplenectomy — and the Howell-Jolly bodies are the smear evidence, since those DNA remnants are normally pitted out by a working spleen. The spleen's specific role is clearing encapsulated organisms, so those are the threat: pneumococci and Haemophilus influenzae. The remaining choices are genuine pathogens in other clinical contexts, but none is an encapsulated organism whose clearance depends principally on splenic function, which is what this patient has lost.

21A patient with sickle cell disease is started on hydroxyurea to raise hemoglobin F.Which best explains why increasing HbF reduces sickling?

  • AHbF binds oxygen more avidly, preventing deoxygenation of HbS
  • BHbF stabilizes the red cell membrane against dehydration
  • CHbF contains no β chains and cannot enter the HbS polymer
  • DHbF inhibits the enzyme that catalyzes HbS polymerization
  • EHbF competitively binds the abnormal valine residue at position 6
Answer

C

HbF is α2γ2 — it contains no β chains at all, so it cannot be incorporated into a polymer built from βS chains. Raising HbF dilutes the polymerizing species, which places it alongside the other treatment goals: reduce the percentage of HbS by transfusion, and reduce the amount of HbS per cell by avoiding dehydration. All three attack the same variable from different directions. This is also why newborns are naturally protected until HbF declines. D is wrong because polymerization is a physical aggregation process, not an enzymatic one, so there is no enzyme to inhibit. A, B, and E propose plausible-sounding but non-existent mechanisms.

22A 26-year-old woman of equatorial African ancestry has elliptocytes on a routine peripheral smear. Hemoglobin, bilirubin, and reticulocyte count are all normal, and she has no symptoms.Which statement about her condition is correct?

  • AMost patients are not anemic and require no treatment
  • BSplenectomy should be performed to prevent future hemolytic crises
  • CThis finding confers increased susceptibility to Plasmodium falciparum
  • DThe autosomal recessive inheritance predicts progressive hemolysis
  • EThe elliptocytes indicate coexisting iron deficiency
Answer

A

Hereditary elliptocytosis is usually autosomal dominant, most often from α-spectrin gene mutations, and the majority of patients are not anemic — the elliptocytes are an incidental finding and treatment is unnecessary, since HE is uncommonly associated with hemolysis. B follows from that: with no meaningful hemolysis there is nothing for splenectomy to accomplish. C inverts a real association — like G6PD deficiency, HE is common in equatorial Africa because it confers resistance to falciparum malaria. D misassigns the inheritance; the recessive form is hereditary pyropoikilocytosis, the severe variant that genuinely causes hemolysis and anemia, illustrating the general rule that one working allele usually leaves enough normal protein to keep cells usable.

23A patient is described as having compensated hemolysis.Which finding is most consistent with this description?

  • AA normal hemoglobin with an elevated reticulocyte count and elevated LDH
  • BA low hemoglobin with a suppressed reticulocyte count
  • CA normal hemoglobin with a normal reticulocyte count and normal LDH
  • DA low hemoglobin with normal haptoglobin and normal bilirubin
  • EA normal hemoglobin with an elevated ferritin and low TIBC
Answer

A

Hemolysis is defined as destruction of red cells with release of hemoglobin — and notably, anemia is not part of that definition. If increased marrow production keeps pace with the loss, the process is compensated: hemoglobin stays normal while the markers of accelerated turnover, such as reticulocytosis and elevated LDH, remain abnormal. That combination is what A describes. C describes a patient with no hemolysis at all. B is the pattern of a production failure, since the marrow is not responding. D lists laboratory findings that argue against hemolysis in a patient who is nonetheless anemic. E describes an iron-handling pattern unrelated to red cell destruction.

Lecture 03 · Tayal

Hemolytic Anemias, Part 2

Questions 24–35

24A 26-year-old man of Mediterranean ancestry is evaluated for a mild anemia. Hemoglobin is 11.2 g/dL, MCV is 63 fL, red cell count is 6.2 ×10&sup6;/µL, and RDW is 12.8%.Which is the most likely diagnosis?

  • AIron deficiency anemia
  • Bβ-thalassemia minor
  • CAnemia of chronic disease
  • DSideroblastic anemia
  • ELead poisoning
Answer

B

Three numbers here point away from iron deficiency and toward thalassemia. The RDW is normal, because the genetic defect is present in every cell from the start, so the population is uniformly small — whereas iron deficiency produces a mixed population and a high RDW. The red cell count is increased: the marrow makes plenty of cells, they are simply underfilled, while in iron deficiency the count falls. And an MCV of 63 is lower than iron deficiency usually reaches; below 67 should raise thalassemia specifically. C, D, and E are all microcytic anemias, which is why they are listed, but none produces an elevated red cell count with a normal RDW.

25A 30-year-old woman has microcytosis with a normal RDW and an elevated red cell count. Hemoglobin electrophoresis shows HbA2 of 6.2%.Which is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Aα-thalassemia trait
  • BHemoglobin H disease
  • CIron deficiency anemia
  • Dβ-thalassemia trait
  • ESilent carrier α-thalassemia
Answer

D

HbA2 is α2δ2 — it requires α chains but not β chains. When β production falls, δ chains take up some of the slack and the HbA2 percentage rises, which is why elevated HbA2 (roughly 3.5–8%) is characteristic of β-thal trait. In α-thalassemia the missing chain is the one HbA2 also needs, so HbA2 is not increased — eliminating A, B, and E despite all three being genuine α-thalassemia states with compatible red cell indices. C is excluded by the normal RDW and elevated red cell count, and iron deficiency does not raise HbA2.

26A 14-year-old with transfusion-dependent β-thalassemia is found to have a mutation producing no β-globin at all.Which mutation type most commonly produces this phenotype?

  • ASplicing mutations
  • BPromoter methylation silencing transcription
  • CLarge gene deletions
  • DMissense substitutions altering globin charge
  • EChain terminator mutations
Answer

E

The β0 phenotype means zero β-globin output, and the characteristic lesion is a chain terminator mutation — a premature stop codon from a nonsense or frameshift change halts translation, and the truncated globin is degraded. It is an all-or-nothing mutation producing an all-or-nothing result. A produces the β+ phenotype instead, and the reasoning is worth holding: splicing is competitive, so a weakened or alternative site is used most of the time but the correct site is still used occasionally, leaving a minority of normal mRNA and therefore reduced but non-zero output. C is the mechanism of α-thalassemia, the standard contrast. D describes the hemoglobinopathy mutations such as HbS and HbC.

27A 16-year-old with β-thalassemia major who has never been transfused has a ferritin of 2,100 ng/mL, and a liver biopsy shows heavy iron deposition on Prussian blue staining.Which best explains the iron overload?

  • AHemolysis releases iron that has no route of excretion
  • BRepeated transfusion has delivered an excess iron load
  • CIncreased hepcidin production traps iron within hepatocytes
  • DIneffective erythropoiesis signals increased intestinal iron absorption
  • EPrecipitated α-globin aggregates chelate iron within the liver
Answer

D

The stem specifically states the patient has never been transfused, which removes the mechanism most students reach for first and is the reason B is listed. The remaining explanation is the important one: ineffective erythropoiesis means the marrow churns through erythroid precursors that die in place, and that futile activity signals for more iron, upregulating absorption even though iron was never the problem. Transfusion, when it occurs, then adds a second independent source — which is why chelation is a standing requirement in these patients. C inverts the physiology: high hepcidin would reduce absorption. A and E propose iron-handling mechanisms that do not drive the overload.

28A radiograph of the skull in a child with untreated β-thalassemia major shows perpendicular bony radiations from the outer table, described as a crewcut appearance.Which mechanism is responsible?

  • AExtramedullary hematopoiesis arising within the periosteum
  • BOsteoblastic reaction to infiltration of the marrow space
  • CIron deposition within the diploic space of the skull
  • DSecondary hyperparathyroidism complicating chronic systemic illness
  • EMarrow expansion driven by erythropoietin in response to anemia
Answer

E

The chain runs: anemia → tissue hypoxia → increased erythropoietin → marrow expansion → skeletal deformity. The expanding marrow cavity pushes outward, and new bone laid down on the outer table produces the radiating pattern. This is also why transfusion helps structurally as well as hematologically — it reduces the anemia and therefore removes the erythropoietin drive. A names a real phenomenon in these patients, but extramedullary hematopoiesis occurs in liver and spleen, not periosteum, and is not what produces this radiographic finding. C misattributes the change to the iron overload, which affects heart, liver, and pancreas. D and B describe bone processes that do not arise from thalassemia.

29A fetus with hydrops fetalis is found to have deletion of all four α-globin genes.Which best explains why this condition is incompatible with life?

  • AThe γ4 tetramers are entirely incapable of binding oxygen
  • BThe γ4 tetramers precipitate and destroy the red cell membrane from within
  • CThe γ4 tetramers bind oxygen with high affinity and do not release it
  • Dβ4 tetramers form instead and are inherently unstable in the fetus
  • EAbsence of α chains prevents heme synthesis in erythroid precursors
Answer

C

With no α chains available, whatever non-α chain is most abundant pairs with itself. In the fetus that is γ, giving γ4 = Hb Bart. The lethal property is its high oxygen affinity: it binds oxygen and will not release it to tissues, so the fetus is profoundly hypoxic despite having hemoglobin. Severe anemia plus hypoxia drives high-output cardiac failure and total body edema. D describes HbH disease, where three genes are deleted and the surviving fetus makes β4 after birth — the same principle applied to a different developmental stage, which is what makes it the strongest distractor. A is wrong because the problem is oxygen release, not binding. E is wrong because heme synthesis is independent of globin availability.

30A 34-year-old man has hemolytic anemia, recurrent unprovoked venous thromboses, and pancytopenia. The direct antiglobulin test is negative.Which underlying defect is most likely?

  • AAnkyrin deficiency destabilizing the membrane skeleton
  • BA somatic PIGA mutation preventing GPI anchor formation
  • CAn autoantibody directed against CD59
  • DDeficiency of complement factor H
  • EReduced ADAMTS13 activity
Answer

B

The triad of chronic hemolysis, thrombosis, and pancytopenia with a negative DAT is paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria. The lesion is a somatic PIGA mutation in a hematopoietic stem cell, which prevents formation of the GPI anchor. Proteins that require that anchor cannot attach — functionally the critical two are CD55 and CD59, both complement brakes — leaving cells defenseless against ongoing low-level complement activation. Thrombosis is the most common cause of death. A is hereditary spherocytosis. C is a deliberate near-miss: the outcome resembles PNH but the defect is a failure to express the protein, not an antibody against it. D relates to complement dysregulation in atypical HUS, and E to TTP.

31A patient with paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is described as having a non-immune hemolytic anemia despite complement-mediated cell destruction.Which best justifies that classification?

  • AComplement regulatory proteins are absent, rather than antibody being bound
  • BComplement is activated only after the cells have already begun to lyse
  • CThe responsible IgM antibody elutes from the cell during sample processing
  • DThe GPI anchor is required before any antibody binding can occur
  • EDestruction of the cells in PNH is entirely extravascular
Answer

A

The distinction rests on what initiates the destruction. In the immune hemolytic anemias an antibody binds the red cell and the process follows from there. In PNH there is no antibody: the cell is destroyed because it has lost CD55 and CD59, so ordinary background complement activation proceeds unchecked. Complement is involved, but as the effector, not as the consequence of an immune recognition event — which is why PNH is grouped with the acquired non-immune disorders alongside microangiopathic and mechanical hemolysis. C describes the situation in cold agglutinin syndrome, where IgM does elute and leaves complement behind. B, D, and E misstate the biology.

32A 68-year-old man develops anemia and acrocyanosis of the fingers during winter, two weeks after an episode of atypical pneumonia. The peripheral smear shows clumped red cells.Which direct antiglobulin test result is most expected?

  • APositive for IgG only
  • BPositive for both IgG and complement in equal proportion
  • CPositive for complement only
  • DNegative
  • EPositive for IgA
Answer

C

Cold agglutinin syndrome following Mycoplasma pneumoniae is mediated by an IgM autoantibody, usually against the I antigen. The DAT detects complement rather than immunoglobulin, and the reason is mechanical: IgM binds in the cool periphery and fixes complement there, then elutes as the blood rewarms on its way back to the core, leaving the deposited complement behind on the cell. A is the pattern of warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia, where IgG stays bound at body temperature. D would suggest a non-immune process such as PNH or hereditary spherocytosis. The red cell clumping in the stem is a further clue: agglutination points cold, since IgG does not agglutinate efficiently at 37°C.

33A 71-year-old man with back pain, renal insufficiency, and a monoclonal gammopathy has a peripheral smear showing red cells arranged in stacked columns.Which best describes this finding?

  • AAgglutination from a cold-reacting antibody
  • BTarget cells from redundant membrane
  • CSpherocyte formation from partial membrane removal
  • DSchistocytes from microvascular shearing
  • ERouleaux formation from increased plasma paraproteins
Answer

E

Rouleaux are red cells stacked like coins, produced when high concentrations of monoclonal protein reduce the charge repulsion that normally keeps cells apart — the classic setting is plasma cell myeloma, which the back pain, renal insufficiency, and gammopathy describe. A is the intended contrast and the reason this question exists: agglutinates also look like red cells sticking together but are irregular clumps produced by an antigen–antibody reaction, pointing to cold agglutinin syndrome rather than a paraproteinemia. C, D, and B describe alterations in the shape of individual cells rather than in how cells associate with one another.

34A 6-year-old develops dark red urine several hours after playing outdoors on a cold day, two weeks after a viral illness. Serum drawn during the episode appears red.Which antibody is responsible?

  • AAn IgM antibody against the I antigen active in the cold
  • BAn IgM antibody against the i antigen arising after infection
  • CAn IgG antibody against Rh antigens reacting maximally at body temperature
  • DAn IgG antibody against the P antigen, binding cold and lysing on rewarming
  • EAn IgG antibody against platelet glycoprotein IIb-IIIa complexes
Answer

D

This is paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria, mediated by the Donath-Landsteiner antibody — an IgG directed against the P antigen that is biphasic: antibody and early complement components bind at low temperature in the periphery, then terminal components assemble on rewarming and the cell lyses. Because lysis completes inside the vessel, PCH is one of the few genuinely intravascular immune hemolytic anemias, which is why the serum is red and the urine dark. It classically follows viral infection in children. A and B are cold agglutinin antibodies, which are IgM and cause agglutination rather than biphasic intravascular lysis. C describes warm AIHA. Note also that corticosteroids are not helpful here, a deliberate contrast with warm disease.

35A patient taking quinine for nocturnal leg cramps develops acute hemolysis. Laboratory work shows an antibody that binds red cells only when the drug is present in the reaction mixture.Which mechanism is responsible?

  • AHapten adsorption of drug to the red cell membrane
  • BComplement lysis from deficient CD55 and CD59
  • CTrue autoantibody formation
  • DImmune complex (ternary complex) formation
  • EOxidative injury from a drug metabolite
Answer

D

Quinine and quinidine are the standard examples of the immune complex or ternary complex mechanism, mediated by IgM: antibody forms on exposure, and on further exposure the drug–antibody complex adsorbs onto the red cell. A is the closest distractor and describes a genuinely different mechanism — in hapten adsorption the drug binds the membrane first and antibody forms against the drug–membrane complex, with penicillin and cephalosporins as the examples. Both A and D require the drug to be present, so hemolysis stops on withdrawal. C is the mechanism of α-methyldopa, where a true self-directed antibody is created that can persist after the drug is stopped — the clinically important difference. B is PNH and E is the G6PD mechanism.

Lecture 04 · Tayal

Bleeding Disorders, Part 1

Questions 36–47

36A 9-year-old boy develops palpable purpura over the buttocks and lower extremities along with abdominal pain and arthralgias two weeks after an upper respiratory infection. Platelet count is 284 ×10³/µL, PT is 12.4 seconds, and aPTT is 29 seconds.Which is the most likely diagnosis?

  • AImmune thrombocytopenic purpura
  • BDisseminated intravascular coagulation
  • Cvon Willebrand disease
  • DHemophilia A
  • EHenoch-Schönlein purpura
Answer

E

Hemostasis has three arms — the vessel, the platelet, and the clotting factors. The platelet count tests the second and PT/aPTT test the third, so a patient who bleeds with a completely normal panel should direct attention to the arm nothing in the routine workup examines: the vessel wall. Henoch-Schönlein purpura is an immune complex vasculitis and is one of the non-thrombocytopenic purpuras. A is excluded by the normal platelet count, and D and B by the normal clotting times — DIC would also lower the platelet count. C is the best of the remaining distractors because vWD does cause mucocutaneous bleeding with a normal platelet count, but it does not produce palpable purpura with abdominal pain and arthritis.

37A 41-year-old woman undergoing evaluation for fatigue is incidentally found to have a platelet count of 62 ×10³/µL. She reports no bleeding, and examination shows no petechiae or ecchymoses.Which is the most appropriate initial management?

  • ATransfuse one unit of apheresis platelets prophylactically
  • BBegin high-dose corticosteroid therapy
  • CObserve, since bleeding is not expected at this count
  • DAdminister intravenous immunoglobulin over two days
  • EProceed to elective splenectomy
Answer

C

The reference range begins at 150, but the threshold at which bleeding begins is far lower. Counts between 50 and 100 produce no clinical findings at all; bruising with minor trauma appears around 30–50, spontaneous bruising and menorrhagia at 10–30, and spontaneous bleeding at roughly 10. A count of 62 in an asymptomatic patient therefore requires evaluation of the cause but no immediate intervention. A, B, D, and E are all real treatments for thrombocytopenia, and each becomes appropriate at a lower count or in a bleeding patient — the error the question targets is attaching a treatment decision to a number simply because it falls below the reference range.

38A 28-year-old woman has a platelet count of 14 ×10³/µL with a normal hemoglobin and white cell count. The smear shows large platelets, and marrow examination demonstrates increased megakaryocytes.Which best explains these findings?

  • AMarrow failure with ineffective and disordered megakaryopoiesis throughout
  • BPeripheral destruction with a marrow response releasing young platelets
  • CSplenic sequestration of platelets that were produced normally
  • DDilution following large-volume crystalloid and colloid resuscitation
  • EConsumption of platelets within widespread microvascular thrombi
Answer

B

The two findings point the same direction. The marrow is busy, not failing, so the problem lies in the periphery. And the platelets are large because they are young — the marrow is compensating by releasing newly formed platelets. That combination of large platelets with a hypercellular megakaryocyte compartment is the signature of a destructive thrombocytopenia, and in an otherwise healthy patient with isolated thrombocytopenia, immune thrombocytopenic purpura is the most common cause. A is the direct opposite, and a production failure would show small platelets and a hypocellular marrow. C, D, and E are genuine causes of thrombocytopenia but none produces increased marrow megakaryocytes with large circulating platelets.

39A 33-year-old woman with immune thrombocytopenic purpura has a platelet count of 4 ×10³/µL. She has no active bleeding.Which best explains why prophylactic platelet transfusion is not indicated?

  • AThe autoantibody will destroy transfused platelets as rapidly as the patient's own
  • BTransfusion would increase the risk of thrombosis in this setting
  • CTransfusion risks HLA alloimmunization that would complicate later care
  • DThe marrow will restore the count within a few hours without intervention
  • ETransfused platelets cannot reach the microcirculation where they are needed
Answer

A

The rule is that there is no role for prophylactic platelet transfusion in ITP, even at a count of zero, in a patient who is not bleeding — and the reason is mechanistic. The circulating autoantibody recognizes a platelet surface glycoprotein such as GPIIb-IIIa, and it does not distinguish the patient's platelets from donor platelets. Transfusing is feeding the same machine. Transfusion is reserved for active, serious bleeding. B is a true statement about a different disorder — it is the reason platelets are avoided in HIT, where the state is actively prothrombotic. C is a real concern but not the governing reason. D and E are false.

40A 5-year-old boy develops petechiae and epistaxis ten days after a viral upper respiratory illness. Platelet count is 18 ×10³/µL, hemoglobin and white cell count are normal, and he is otherwise well.Which is the most appropriate management?

  • ASplenectomy after failure of medical therapy
  • BObservation, with spontaneous remission expected
  • CLong-term corticosteroid therapy with a taper
  • DRituximab given as four weekly infusions
  • EA thrombopoietin receptor agonist such as eltrombopag
Answer

B

Acute immune thrombocytopenia in children is clinically a different disease from the chronic adult form. It has an abrupt onset, usually after a viral illness, does not usually require steroids, and undergoes spontaneous and permanent remission. The adult form, by contrast, is typically chronic with relapses, which is where the escalating treatment ladder becomes relevant. A, C, D, and E are all legitimate therapies for chronic adult ITP, arranged along that ladder from immune suppression through Fc receptor blockade, splenectomy, and increased production — and each is inappropriate here, where the natural history is resolution.

41A 64-year-old man receiving unfractionated heparin after orthopedic surgery has a platelet count fall from 245 to 88 ×10³/µL on day 7. He develops a new proximal deep venous thrombosis.Which best explains the thrombosis despite the falling platelet count?

  • AHeparin-PF4 complexes directly activate factor X on the platelet surface
  • BHeparin directly inhibits antithrombin, producing a rebound prothrombotic state in the vasculature
  • CDestroyed platelets release tissue factor from activated splenic macrophages
  • DThe antibody activates complement directly on the endothelial surface
  • EAntibody binding to platelet FcγRIIa causes activation and microparticle release
Answer

E

Every other cause of thrombocytopenia in this material lowers the count by removing platelets. HIT lowers it by activating them first. IgG antibodies form against heparin–PF4 complexes, bind the platelet FcγRIIa receptor, and drive the platelet to release procoagulant microparticles including thrombin. Only afterward are the activated, antibody-coated platelets consumed and destroyed. Because activation precedes destruction, the falling count is a marker of consumption rather than a bleeding risk, and the clinical danger is thrombosis. The remaining options invoke mechanisms that do not occur in HIT, and B in particular inverts heparin's actual interaction with antithrombin.

42A patient with suspected heparin-induced thrombocytopenia has had all heparin discontinued, including line flushes. The platelet count is 62 ×10³/µL and a new thrombosis has been documented.Which is the most appropriate next step?

  • AObserve, since removal of heparin is sufficient
  • BResume heparin at a reduced dose
  • CTransfuse platelets before initiating anticoagulation
  • DBegin warfarin as sole anticoagulation
  • EBegin argatroban
Answer

E

Stopping heparin removes the trigger but does nothing about the thrombin burst that has already occurred — which is why A is the trap this question is built around. A direct thrombin inhibitor such as argatroban or bivalirudin is required to neutralize the thrombin already generated. C is worse than unhelpful: platelet transfusion may increase thrombotic risk, since it adds substrate to an actively prothrombotic state. B reintroduces the antigen driving the process. D is the subtlest error — warfarin does not address the immediate thrombin excess, and starting it alone in the acute phase is specifically avoided.

43A patient begins heparin therapy and the platelet count falls from 220 to 132 ×10³/µL on day 2. No thrombosis occurs, and the count returns to baseline over the following days while heparin is continued.Which best describes this event?

  • AImmune thrombocytopenic purpura triggered by heparin
  • BType II heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, immune
  • CType I heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, non-immune
  • DDilutional thrombocytopenia
  • EEarly disseminated intravascular coagulation
Answer

C

Three features identify Type I: the fall is mild (100,000–150,000), the onset is rapid at 1–2 days, and it resolves despite continued heparin, with no thrombosis. The mechanism is non-immune. Type II is the dangerous entity — severe (below 100,000), delayed to days 5–10, persistent until heparin is stopped, and associated with thromboembolic complications — and its timing is scored in the 4 Ts as one of four elements alongside the magnitude of the fall, thrombosis, and the absence of other causes. A, D, and E do not fit a count that recovers spontaneously while the drug continues.

44A term newborn delivered to a healthy primigravida develops petechiae and a platelet count of 22 ×10³/µL on the first day of life. The mother's platelet count is 258 ×10³/µL.Which is the most likely diagnosis?

  • ARh hemolytic disease of the newborn
  • BMaternal immune thrombocytopenic purpura with transplacental autoantibody
  • CCongenital amegakaryocytic thrombocytopenia
  • DNeonatal sepsis
  • ENeonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia
Answer

E

Two features settle this. The mother's platelet count is normal, which is exactly what distinguishes an alloantibody from an autoantibody: she lacks the HPA-1a antigen, so her antibody attacks fetal platelets but has nothing to attack on her own. In maternal ITP the autoantibody targets an antigen she also carries, so her count would be low — making B the intended contrast. The second feature is that this is a first pregnancy, and NAIT can affect the first child, unlike Rh disease, which requires a prior sensitizing pregnancy. Importing the Rh timing into the platelet disease is the classic error, which is why A is included.

45A 42-year-old woman presents with confusion, fever, and petechiae. Platelet count is 22 ×10³/µL, the smear shows schistocytes, LDH is markedly elevated, and creatinine is 1.5 mg/dL. PT is 12.8 seconds, aPTT is 30 seconds, and fibrinogen is 320 mg/dL.Which is the most likely diagnosis?

  • ADisseminated intravascular coagulation
  • BImmune thrombocytopenic purpura
  • CTypical hemolytic uremic syndrome
  • DThrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
  • EHeparin-induced thrombocytopenia
Answer

D

The pentad — thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolysis, renal dysfunction, neurologic disturbance, and fever — is present, and the discriminating laboratory finding is that PT, aPTT, and fibrinogen are all normal. That is what separates TTP from DIC, which shares the low platelets, schistocytes, and microvascular thrombi but prolongs both clotting times and consumes fibrinogen. The logic is about what is being consumed: TTP consumes platelets on uncleaved vWF multimers while leaving the coagulation factors untouched. C is plausible but the renal impairment here is mild and neurologic findings dominate, the reverse of typical HUS. B produces isolated thrombocytopenia without schistocytes or organ dysfunction.

46A patient with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is treated with therapeutic plasma exchange rather than plasma infusion alone.Which best explains this choice?

  • AExchange delivers a higher concentration of ADAMTS13 than infusion can achieve
  • BExchange removes the autoantibody and multimers while supplying enzyme
  • CInfused plasma does not contain ADAMTS13
  • DExchange carries a lower risk of volume overload
  • EExchange physically removes schistocytes from the circulation
Answer

B

Plasma exchange performs two jobs in one procedure. Infusing plasma alone would supply ADAMTS13 but leave the IgG autoantibody in place to neutralize it — and would also leave the accumulated ultra-large vWF multimers circulating. Exchange removes the patient's plasma, carrying away both the antibody and the toxic product, and replaces it with donor plasma containing working enzyme. It attacks the cause and the consequence simultaneously, which is why it is the emergency intervention rather than an adjunct. C is false, and it is precisely because plasma does contain ADAMTS13 that it serves as the replacement fluid. A and D are secondary considerations, and E misdescribes the purpose.

47A 5-year-old develops bloody diarrhea followed by oliguria. Creatinine is 3.9 mg/dL, platelet count is 58 ×10³/µL, and schistocytes are present. ADAMTS13 activity is normal.Which is the most appropriate management?

  • ATherapeutic plasma exchange
  • BCorticosteroids with rituximab
  • CEculizumab
  • DSupportive care without specific therapy
  • EPlatelet transfusion to a target above 50 ×10³/µL
Answer

D

Typical hemolytic uremic syndrome follows infection with Shiga toxin-producing E. coli, and its distinguishing features against TTP are prominent acute renal failure, less prominent neurologic involvement, a childhood predominance with frequent recovery, and normal ADAMTS13. Treatment follows the lesion: the toxin has already injured the endothelium and is gone, so there is nothing for exchange to remove — hence supportive care only. A is correct for TTP, where an antibody and an accumulated substrate can both be cleared. C is correct for atypical HUS, driven by unregulated complement. B targets autoantibody production, which is not the mechanism here.

Lecture 05 · Tayal

Bleeding Disorders, Part 2

Questions 48–59

48A 7-year-old boy has had three episodes of painful knee swelling following minor falls. He has never had epistaxis, gum bleeding, or petechiae.Which category of defect does this bleeding pattern suggest?

  • AA qualitative platelet disorder
  • BA clotting factor deficiency
  • CA vessel wall abnormality
  • DA quantitative platelet disorder
  • EA disorder of fibrinolysis
Answer

B

The type of bleed is the single most useful historical discriminator, and it maps directly onto the underlying defect. Platelets plug tiny capillary leaks continuously, so losing them produces diffuse, superficial, small-vessel bleeding — petechiae, mucosal ooze, epistaxis — appearing immediately. Clotting factors stabilize a plug that has already formed, so losing them allows the initial plug to form and then fail later under pressure, giving bleeding into deep spaces: joints and soft tissue, often with a delay. Hemarthrosis is a factor disease until proven otherwise. A and D both describe platelet problems, which would present with the mucocutaneous pattern the stem explicitly excludes. C also produces petechiae and purpura.

49A 58-year-old man bleeds excessively after a dental extraction. He takes aspirin daily. Platelet count is 244 ×10³/µL, PT is 12.1 seconds, and aPTT is 28 seconds.Which test is most likely to reveal the abnormality?

  • AA mixing study with normal plasma
  • BFibrinogen level and thrombin time
  • CFactor VIII and factor IX activity assays
  • DD-dimer and fibrin degradation products
  • EAutomated platelet function analysis
Answer

E

Qualitative platelet defects are invisible to every routine screening test. The count is normal because all the platelets are present; PT and aPTT are normal because the clotting factors are intact. The defect is in platelet function, and only a function test will show it — the automated analyzer exposes platelets to agonists such as collagen, epinephrine, and ADP and is specifically good at detecting antiplatelet medications, von Willebrand disease, and inherited function disorders. Aspirin acts by inhibiting cyclooxygenase and therefore thromboxane A2 production. A, B, D, and C all interrogate the coagulation cascade or its products, which the normal PT and aPTT have already shown to be intact. Note that bleeding time is no longer performed.

50A 22-year-old woman has had lifelong mucosal bleeding requiring occasional platelet transfusion. Platelet count and platelet size are normal. Aggregometry shows absent aggregation with ADP, collagen, and epinephrine, but a normal response to ristocetin.Which is the most likely diagnosis?

  • ABernard-Soulier syndrome
  • BHemophilia A
  • Cvon Willebrand disease, type 1
  • DStorage pool disease
  • EGlanzmann thrombasthenia
Answer

E

The agonist that fails identifies the receptor that is missing. ADP, collagen, and epinephrine all funnel into activation of GPIIb-IIIa, the fibrinogen receptor that cross-links platelets to one another — so failure across all of them indicates a defect in aggregation, which is Glanzmann thrombasthenia. Ristocetin is the exception because it works by promoting vWF binding to GP1b, testing adhesion instead; a normal ristocetin response therefore exonerates that axis, eliminating A and C. Glanzmann is autosomal recessive, has a normal platelet count and size, and is the most common inherited disorder of platelet function. B is excluded by the mucosal rather than deep bleeding pattern and by the normal aggregometry that hemophilia would not affect.

51A 17-year-old has mild thrombocytopenia with strikingly large platelets on the smear. Aggregometry shows absent aggregation with ristocetin but normal responses to ADP, collagen, and epinephrine.Which receptor is deficient?

  • AGPIIb-IIIa, the fibrinogen receptor
  • BGP1b, the von Willebrand factor receptor
  • CP2Y12, the ADP receptor
  • DThe thromboxane A2 receptor
  • EGPVI, the collagen receptor
Answer

B

This is the mirror image of the preceding pattern. Ristocetin tests the adhesion axis by promoting vWF binding to GP1b, so isolated failure of ristocetin aggregation localizes the defect there — and the giant platelets with mild thrombocytopenia identify Bernard-Soulier syndrome specifically rather than von Willebrand disease. A would give the opposite aggregometry result, failing with ADP, collagen, and epinephrine while responding to ristocetin. C and D name receptors targeted by clopidogrel and inhibited downstream of aspirin respectively, both of which are acquired rather than inherited and neither of which produces giant platelets.

52A 26-year-old woman with menorrhagia is found to have absent ristocetin-induced platelet aggregation. Her platelet count and platelet size are normal.Which additional result would best distinguish von Willebrand disease from Bernard-Soulier syndrome?

  • Avon Willebrand factor antigen level
  • BProthrombin time
  • CPlatelet count and mean platelet volume
  • DFactor IX activity
  • ED-dimer
Answer

A

Both disorders lie on the same pathway and both abolish ristocetin aggregation, because the test requires vWF to bridge to GP1b and either partner can be the missing one. The way to separate them is to measure the ligand directly: vWF antigen is low in vWD and normal in Bernard-Soulier, where the deficiency is in the platelet receptor. C is a reasonable instinct, since Bernard-Soulier characteristically shows giant platelets with mild thrombocytopenia — but the stem states the count and size are normal, deliberately removing that clue. B, D, and E examine the coagulation cascade and fibrinolysis, neither of which is the site of the lesion.

53A hospitalized patient who has been receiving broad-spectrum antibiotics and taking nothing by mouth for eight days has a PT of 19.2 seconds, an aPTT of 33 seconds, and a platelet count of 214 ×10³/µL.Which best explains why the PT is prolonged before the aPTT?

  • AVitamin K deficiency spares the factors measured by the aPTT
  • BFactor VII does not require vitamin K for its activity
  • CThe PT is intrinsically more sensitive than the aPTT to any factor deficiency
  • DFactor VII is consumed first once the tissue factor pathway is triggered
  • EFactor VII has the shortest half-life of the vitamin K-dependent factors
Answer

E

Vitamin K is the cofactor for gamma-carboxylation of factors 2, 7, 9, and 10, and all four fall when it is deficient — but not at the same rate. A factor's level declines in proportion to how fast it clears, and factor 7 has the shortest half-life of the four. Factor 7 is also the only one of them in the extrinsic limb, which is what the PT reads. The result is an isolated PT prolongation first, with the aPTT following as 9, 10, and 2 deplete — and the same logic explains why PT/INR is used to monitor warfarin. B and A are factually wrong. C misattributes the finding to assay sensitivity rather than factor kinetics. D invokes consumption, which is not the mechanism in a deficiency state.

54A 54-year-old man with sepsis has a PT of 23 seconds, an aPTT of 51 seconds, a platelet count of 64 ×10³/µL, a fibrinogen of 88 mg/dL, and a markedly elevated D-dimer.Which is the most likely diagnosis?

  • AVitamin K deficiency
  • BChronic liver disease
  • Cvon Willebrand disease, type 3
  • DHemophilia A with an acquired inhibitor
  • EDisseminated intravascular coagulation
Answer

E

DIC is the only disorder in these lectures that strikes all three arms of hemostasis at once, and the combination is effectively diagnostic: widespread thrombin generation consumes platelets so the count falls, consumes factors so PT and aPTT both rise, and converts fibrinogen to fibrin so fibrinogen falls — after which fibrinolysis clears that fibrin and releases D-dimer. B is the closest competitor and shares the low platelets and prolonged times, but liver disease does not characteristically produce a markedly elevated D-dimer, and the fibrinogen here is very low. A produces a prolonged PT with a normal platelet count. D and C are single-lesion disorders that cannot move every parameter.

55A 31-year-old woman with a lifelong history of easy bruising and menorrhagia has a von Willebrand factor antigen level of 71% and a ristocetin cofactor activity of 19%.Which is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Avon Willebrand disease, type 2
  • Bvon Willebrand disease, type 1
  • Cvon Willebrand disease, type 3
  • DAcquired von Willebrand syndrome from aortic stenosis
  • EBernard-Soulier syndrome
Answer

A

The discriminator is antigen versus activity. Types 1 and 3 are quantity problems: the protein that is present functions normally, so antigen and activity fall together. Type 2 is a quality problem: plenty of protein is produced but it is structurally abnormal and cannot interact properly with platelet GP1bα and factor 8, so antigen substantially exceeds activity — which is exactly the discrepancy shown here. Type 2 accounts for 20–35% of cases, most often from missense substitutions causing defective multimer assembly, with type 2A the most common variant. B would show both numbers modestly and proportionally reduced; C would show both near zero. E is a platelet receptor defect and would not lower vWF antigen.

56A patient with type 3 von Willebrand disease is scheduled for a dental procedure. Desmopressin is considered and rejected.Which best explains why it would be ineffective?

  • ADesmopressin acts through V1 receptors, which are absent in type 3
  • BType 3 patients have essentially no stored von Willebrand factor available for release
  • CThe von Willebrand factor released in type 3 is structurally abnormal and non-functional
  • DDesmopressin requires intact platelet GP1b to exert its effect
  • EType 3 patients develop neutralizing antibodies against released factor
Answer

B

DDAVP works by emptying a storage depot — it acts on endothelial V2 receptors to release vWF already made and stored in Weibel-Palade bodies. That requires there to be something in the depot. Type 1 patients make normally functioning vWF, just too little, so a reserve exists and the released protein works, which is why DDAVP is the type 1 treatment. Type 3 patients make almost none, or none that is secreted, so there is nothing to mobilize and they require concentrate instead. C is the intended near-miss: it is the correct reasoning for type 2, where the released protein is defective. A misnames the receptor, and D and E describe mechanisms that do not apply.

57A patient with von Willebrand disease is noted to have a prolonged aPTT.Which best explains this finding?

  • Avon Willebrand factor acts as a cofactor within the intrinsic cascade
  • BImpaired platelet adhesion secondarily prolongs the aPTT
  • Cvon Willebrand factor directly activates factor IX in plasma
  • DUnbound factor VIII is rapidly cleared, lowering factor VIII levels
  • EvWF deficiency causes secondary malabsorption of vitamin K
Answer

D

von Willebrand factor is not a clotting factor and has no place in the cascade, so on its own it should not affect the aPTT — which is why A and C are wrong despite sounding reasonable. It does so indirectly: factor 8 binds vWF with high affinity, and vWF stabilizes it, so unbound factor 8 is rapidly cleared and vWF deficiency drags factor 8 down with it. This explains two further observations: the aPTT in vWD is normal unless factor 8 falls significantly, and severe type 3 disease can produce hemarthrosis mimicking hemophilia, because the patient functionally has both an adhesion defect and a factor 8 deficiency. B is wrong because the aPTT is a plasma assay indifferent to platelet adhesion.

58A 74-year-old man with no personal or family history of bleeding develops extensive spontaneous soft tissue hematomas. The aPTT is 68 seconds and does not correct when his plasma is mixed with normal plasma.Which is the most likely diagnosis?

  • AHemophilia A presenting late in life
  • BAn acquired factor VIII inhibitor
  • CFactor IX deficiency
  • Dvon Willebrand disease
  • EVitamin K deficiency
Answer

B

The mixing study is the decisive test, and its logic is direct: if the patient is simply missing a factor, the normal plasma supplies it and the clotting time corrects. If the patient has an inhibiting antibody, that antibody attacks the factor in the donated plasma too, so the aPTT stays prolonged. Corrects equals deficiency; does not correct equals inhibitor. Here the failure to correct, combined with an elderly patient and no prior bleeding history, indicates an acquired autoantibody against factor 8. A, C, D, and E are all deficiency states, and every one of them would correct on mixing — which is the point of the question. Inhibitor strength is quantified by the Bethesda titer.

59A patient with hemophilia A and a high-titer factor VIII inhibitor is bleeding and is given recombinant factor VIIa.Which best describes how this agent works?

  • AIt supplies factor VIII in a form the antibody cannot recognize
  • BIt neutralizes the circulating inhibitory antibody
  • CIt activates factor X directly on the platelet surface, downstream of the blockade
  • DIt inhibits conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, stabilizing existing clot
  • EIt replaces all four vitamin K-dependent factors simultaneously
Answer

C

A factor 8 inhibitor blocks the intrinsic route to factor X. Recombinant 7a activates X directly on the platelet surface, entering the cascade downstream of the blockade entirely and producing a thrombin burst — so the antibody becomes irrelevant. That is what bypassing agent means: the antibody is not overcome, it is routed around. A describes a strategy that does not exist, though giving large doses of factor 8 to overwhelm the inhibitor is a separate real option. B misstates the mechanism. D describes the antifibrinolytics such as aminocaproic acid and tranexamic acid. E describes prothrombin complex concentrate, which is used for warfarin reversal, though activated PCC is also used in this setting.

Lecture 06 · Tayal

Blood Transfusion

Questions 60–71

60Ten minutes into a red cell transfusion, a patient develops fever, rigors, hypotension, severe lumbar back pain, and dark red urine.Which underlying failure most likely produced this event?

  • ADonor HLA antibodies reacting with the recipient's neutrophils
  • BFailure of the antibody screen to detect a Kell system alloantibody
  • CBacterial contamination of the unit during collection or processing
  • DMisidentification of the patient, giving ABO-incompatible blood
  • EInfusion of a volume exceeding the patient's limited cardiac reserve
Answer

D

This is an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, and the emphasis is deliberate: these are traced to patient misidentification — the wrong blood given to the wrong patient — rather than to a failure of serology. The most common single scenario is group A blood given to a group O patient. It is why mislabeled tubes are never accepted under any circumstances. B describes a delayed rather than acute mechanism and would not produce this presentation. C would cause high fever with profound hypotension but not back pain and hemoglobinuria. A is TRALI and E is TACO, both of which present with respiratory rather than hemolytic findings. The first step in any suspected reaction is to stop the transfusion.

61A student is asked why ABO incompatibility produces immediate intravascular hemolysis while Rh incompatibility does not.Which explanation is correct?

  • AABO antigens are present at far higher copy number on the red cell surface
  • BABO antibodies require prior sensitization and are therefore of higher affinity
  • CAnti-A and anti-B are IgG and are therefore cleared rapidly by splenic macrophages
  • DAnti-A and anti-B are IgM and fix complement efficiently to C5b-9
  • EABO antibodies activate the coagulation cascade directly
Answer

D

Anti-A and anti-B are naturally occurring and preformed — the expected antibodies, present without any prior transfusion or pregnancy, which makes B wrong. They are IgM, which is pentameric and therefore an extremely efficient complement fixer: a single molecule can bridge the C1q arms and drive the cascade to C5b-9, punching holes in the cell inside the vessel. Anti-D, by contrast, is IgG, requires exposure, and fixes complement poorly, so those cells are removed slowly by splenic macrophages — extravascular. C states the IgG mechanism but attaches it to the wrong antibody. The general principle carries over from hemolytic anemia: IgM to complement to intravascular; IgG to spleen to extravascular.

62An Rh(D)-negative woman in her first pregnancy is carrying an Rh(D)-positive fetus and is given Rho(D) immune globulin.What is the purpose of this intervention?

  • ATo neutralize preformed maternal anti-D of the IgM class
  • BTo prevent ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn
  • CTo prevent maternal formation of anti-D IgG
  • DTo suppress fetal erythropoiesis and reduce antigen load
  • ETo prevent maternal alloimmunization to Kell antigens
Answer

C

Rh antibodies are caused by exposure — transfusion, pregnancy, or transplant — rather than being naturally present, which is what makes A wrong. RhoGAM prevents the mother from forming anti-D after exposure to fetal red cells. The reason this matters is that anti-D is IgG, and only IgG crosses the placenta, so in a later pregnancy it would cross, bind fetal red cells, and destroy them. That single fact is why anti-D endangers a fetus while anti-A and anti-B, being IgM, largely do not, so B is incorrect. It is also the identical mechanism behind neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia, where maternal IgG against a fetal platelet antigen crosses to destroy fetal platelets.

63A blood bank technologist finds that a patient's red cells fail to react with anti-A, anti-B, or anti-D reagents. The patient's plasma agglutinates group A cells, group B cells, and group O cells.Which best explains these results?

  • AThe patient is group O, Rh(D) negative
  • BThe sample was drawn after a recent large-volume transfusion
  • CThe patient is group AB, Rh(D) negative
  • DThe patient has the Bombay phenotype
  • EA cold agglutinin is interfering with the reverse typing
Answer

D

The front type looks like group O — carrying neither A nor B antigen and D negative — and would ordinarily be confirmed by a back type showing anti-A and anti-B. The critical abnormality is that the plasma also agglutinates group O cells, which a true group O patient's plasma would not, since group O cells carry the H antigen that everyone else has too. The H antigen (fucose) is the backbone that must be present before either ABO antigen can be built; individuals lacking it entirely have the Bombay phenotype and make anti-H, rendering them incompatible with essentially all ordinary donors, including group O. C is excluded because AB cells would react with both reagents. This case illustrates why front and back typing exist as reciprocal checks: when they disagree, something is wrong.

64A group AB patient requires urgent red cell transfusion, and no group AB units are available.Which group should be selected next?

  • AGroup O only, since it is the universal donor
  • BGroup A or B only after a full crossmatch and antibody identification
  • CGroup A
  • DNo transfusion should be given until AB units arrive
  • EGroup O, but only if the patient is Rh(D) negative
Answer

C

The selection rule is that a recipient may receive any group whose antigens they will not attack. A group AB patient has neither anti-A nor anti-B, which is what makes AB the universal recipient, so an AB recipient takes AB units first, then group A or group B units, with group O last. A is a common reflex error: group O is the universal red cell donor because O cells carry no A or B antigen, but that makes it the last choice for an AB patient rather than the first, since better-matched options exist and the supply of O should be conserved. D is unsafe in an urgent setting when compatible alternatives exist. E introduces an Rh condition that does not govern the ABO selection sequence.

65A 24-year-old man with severe hemophilia A presents with a spontaneous hemarthrosis.Which product should be administered?

  • AFactor VIII concentrate
  • BFresh frozen plasma
  • CCryoprecipitate
  • DWhole blood
  • EPlatelet concentrate
Answer

A

Cryoprecipitate does contain factor 8 and von Willebrand factor, and it is still the wrong answer for von Willebrand disease and for hemophilia A — this is stated explicitly. Those patients receive specific factor concentrates, recombinant or plasma-derived, which are purer, virally inactivated, and dose-calculable. Cryoprecipitate is a fibrinogen product, indicated for severe hypofibrinogenemia below 100 mg/dL in massive transfusion and DIC, for dysfibrinogenemia, and for factor 13 deficiency. B would deliver factor 8 only in dilute form along with every other factor. The principle worth carrying: the presence of an ingredient does not make a product the right treatment.

66A trauma patient who has received twelve units of red cells continues to bleed diffusely. The fibrinogen level is 62 mg/dL.Which product is most appropriate?

  • AAdditional red blood cells
  • BPlatelet concentrate
  • CFactor IX concentrate
  • DCryoprecipitate
  • EAlbumin
Answer

D

This is the indication cryoprecipitate exists for: severe hypofibrinogenemia below 100 mg/dL in the setting of massive transfusion or DIC, with a post-transfusion target of 100–150 mg/dL. Cryoprecipitate is prepared from FFP and concentrates fibrinogen, factor 8, von Willebrand factor, and factor 13 into a small volume, which is what makes it the efficient way to raise fibrinogen. B addresses a different component and no platelet count is given. C treats hemophilia B rather than hypofibrinogenemia. A would worsen the dilutional coagulopathy without addressing it. E provides oncotic support but no hemostatic factors at all.

67A patient with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura undergoes therapeutic plasma exchange using fresh frozen plasma as the replacement fluid.Which property of FFP makes it the appropriate choice?

  • AIt supplies ADAMTS-13
  • BIt supplies fibrinogen at high concentration
  • CIt supplies factor VIII and von Willebrand factor
  • DIt provides oncotic volume expansion
  • EIt supplies immunoglobulin that neutralizes the autoantibody
Answer

A

FFP is non-cellular plasma containing all clotting factors including fibrinogen, and its listed indications follow from that breadth: replacing all factors in DIC, liver disease, and dilutional coagulopathy from massive transfusion; Coumadin reversal, where it supplies factors 2, 7, 9, and 10; and TTP, where the relevant content is ADAMTS-13. In TTP the deficiency is of that specific metalloprotease, so the replacement fluid must restore it while the exchange simultaneously removes the autoantibody and the accumulated ultra-large vWF multimers. B and C name genuine constituents of plasma that are not the reason for its use here — and if fibrinogen alone were the goal, cryoprecipitate would be the more concentrated product. E misattributes the benefit to immunoglobulin content.

68A patient with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia and a new thrombosis has a platelet count of 34 ×10³/µL and is not bleeding.What is the appropriate approach to platelet transfusion?

  • AAvoid transfusion, which may increase thrombotic risk
  • BTransfuse only if the count falls below 10 ×10³/µL
  • CTransfuse to maintain a count above 50 ×10³/µL
  • DTransfuse concurrently with discontinuation of heparin
  • ETransfuse before initiating a direct thrombin inhibitor
Answer

A

The reflex of low platelets, therefore give platelets is the trap; the correct first question is always why the count is low. In DIC, ITP, TTP, and HIT the low count reflects ongoing consumption or immune destruction rather than failed production, so transfused platelets are destroyed just as quickly. In HIT it is worse than futile: the underlying state is actively prothrombotic, driven by platelet activation and release of procoagulant microparticles, so adding platelets supplies further substrate for thrombosis. C, B, D, and E all propose thresholds or sequencing that would be reasonable in a production failure such as chemotherapy-induced thrombocytopenia, where the standard stable trigger is around 10,000.

69A 78-year-old woman with a history of heart failure receives two units of red cells and three units of plasma over four hours while also receiving maintenance intravenous fluids. She develops dyspnea, jugular venous distension, and bilateral crackles, and improves substantially after furosemide.Which is the most likely diagnosis?

  • ATransfusion-related acute lung injury
  • BFebrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction
  • CAnaphylactic transfusion reaction
  • DTransfusion-associated circulatory overload
  • EAcute hemolytic transfusion reaction
Answer

D

Both TRALI and TACO present as respiratory distress during or shortly after transfusion, and three features here point to volume rather than lung injury: a large cumulative volume on top of maintenance fluids, a patient with limited cardiac reserve, and findings of cardiogenic congestion that respond to diuretics. TRALI is non-cardiogenic lung injury from donor antibodies, does not respond to diuretics, and requires aggressive respiratory support. C would produce urticaria and bronchospasm without fever and typically without volume findings. B is fever and rigors only and is not life-threatening. E would present with fever, hypotension, back pain, and hemoglobinuria within minutes.

70A previously healthy 40-year-old man develops acute dyspnea, hypoxemia, and fever one hour into a plasma transfusion and requires intubation. Chest imaging shows bilateral infiltrates. Central venous pressure is normal and he does not improve with diuresis.Which mechanism is responsible?

  • ADonor HLA or granulocyte antibodies activating recipient neutrophils
  • BRecipient IgE antibodies directed against a donor plasma protein
  • CVolume overload in a patient with reduced cardiac reserve
  • DCytokines within the stored unit acting on the hypothalamic thermoregulatory center
  • EBacterial endotoxin present in the transfused product
Answer

A

TRALI is lung injury rather than fluid overload, which the normal filling pressure and the failure to respond to diuresis establish, eliminating C. The majority of cases are associated with granulocyte or HLA antibodies in the donor that react with the patient's white cells; the resulting neutrophil activation injures the pulmonary capillary bed. Treatment is aggressive respiratory support in the ICU. It was formerly the most commonly reported cause of transfusion-related death. B describes an allergic reaction, which produces urticaria and wheezing without infiltrates. D is the febrile nonhemolytic mechanism, and E would give profound hypotension with high fever.

71Blood centers now restrict plasma donation to men, women who have never been pregnant, and women who have tested negative for HLA antibodies.What is the rationale for this policy?

  • APlasma from female donors contains higher concentrations of inflammatory cytokines
  • BPregnancy is the most common route to HLA and granulocyte alloimmunization
  • CMale donors provide larger plasma volumes per collection
  • DPreviously pregnant donors have a higher rate of bacterial contamination
  • EFemale donors more frequently carry anti-IgA antibodies
Answer

B

The antibodies that cause TRALI reside in the donor plasma, not in the patient, and a person acquires HLA and granulocyte antibodies only through alloimmunization — the commonest route being pregnancy, where the mother is exposed to paternal HLA antigens on fetal cells. Restricting plasma donation removes the population most likely to be carrying those antibodies, which is why an epidemiologic intervention solved an immunologic problem and why TRALI risk fell substantially. A, C, and D propose differences between donor groups that are not the basis of the policy. E names a real antibody, but anti-IgA causes anaphylaxis in IgA-deficient recipients and is unrelated to donor sex or pregnancy history.

Lecture 07 · Randall

White Blood Cells & Reactive Changes

Questions 72–83

72A patient has a total white cell count of 2.2 ×10³/µL. The differential shows 78% lymphocytes, 15% neutrophils, and 7% monocytes.Which best describes this patient's status?

  • ALymphocytosis
  • BPancytopenia
  • CNeutropenia with a normal absolute lymphocyte count
  • DLeukocytosis with lymphocyte predominance
  • EA normal differential in a patient with hemodilution
Answer

C

Always work from the absolute count rather than the percentage. Here the absolute neutrophil count is 2.2 × 0.15 = 0.33, which is well below the 1.4–6.5 reference range and in fact below the 0.5 threshold at which opportunistic infection risk climbs steeply. The absolute lymphocyte count is 2.2 × 0.78 = 1.7, comfortably within the normal 1.2–3.4 range. So the striking lymphocyte percentage is a disguised neutropenia, not a lymphocytosis — relative counts shift automatically whenever any single line moves. A and D misread the percentage as a real increase. B requires anemia and thrombocytopenia as well, neither of which is given.

73A 34-year-old man who has been taking clozapine for six weeks presents with fever and pharyngitis. His absolute neutrophil count is 0.2 ×10³/µL. Hemoglobin and platelet count are normal.Which mechanism is most likely responsible?

  • ADose-dependent suppression of marrow progenitor cells
  • BIncreased peripheral consumption from an occult infection
  • CSequestration of neutrophils within an enlarged spleen
  • DReplacement of marrow space by an infiltrative process
  • EIdiosyncratic immune-mediated destruction of neutrophils
Answer

E

Drug toxicity is the single most common cause of neutropenia and it comes in two forms. Dose-dependent toxicity is predictable, occurs with chemotherapeutic agents, and is planned around because the nadir is expected. Idiosyncratic toxicity is by definition unpredictable and is characteristic of certain antibiotics and psychiatric medications — presenting exactly as here, in a previously well patient on a stable dose who becomes abruptly and profoundly neutropenic. The management difference follows: support through the first, stop the drug in the second. A is the intended contrast and would not fit an antipsychotic at steady dose. D would ordinarily produce other cytopenias, which the normal hemoglobin and platelet count exclude.

74A 46-year-old woman with Cushing syndrome has a white cell count of 14.8 ×10³/µL with an absolute neutrophil count of 12.1 and an absolute lymphocyte count of 0.6 ×10³/µL. She has no fever and no localizing symptoms.Which best explains this pattern?

  • AOccult bacterial infection with a stress-related lymphopenia
  • BIncreased marrow production of neutrophils with immune destruction of lymphocytes
  • CCytokine-mediated suppression of lymphopoiesis alone
  • DMarrow infiltration that spares the granulocytic line
  • EDemargination of neutrophils together with redistribution and apoptosis of lymphocytes
Answer

E

Cortisol appears on both the leukocytosis and the leukopenia lists, and it moves the two lines in opposite directions simultaneously. Neutrophils that were adherent to vessel walls — the marginating pool — detach into the circulating pool where they are counted, and the marrow storage pool is released; no new neutrophils are made. Lymphocytes are simultaneously driven out of the blood into lymphoid tissue and undergo apoptosis. A patient on steroids or with endogenous hypercortisolism who has a high white count and a low lymphocyte count is therefore not necessarily infected, which is what makes A the trap. B misdescribes the neutrophil arm as increased production. D and C account for only one of the two changes.

75A 22-year-old man has two weeks of fever, hepatosplenomegaly, and pancytopenia. Ferritin is 21,400 ng/mL, soluble IL-2 receptor is markedly elevated, and EBV PCR is positive. PT and aPTT are prolonged, fibrinogen is 92 mg/dL, and D-dimer is elevated.Which is the best unifying diagnosis?

  • ADisseminated intravascular coagulation from occult sepsis
  • BAcute leukemia with marrow replacement
  • CHemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis with secondary DIC
  • DInfectious mononucleosis with hepatic involvement
  • EAplastic anemia following viral infection
Answer

C

Fever, hepatosplenomegaly, cytopenias, a ferritin in the thousands, an elevated soluble IL-2 receptor, and an EBV trigger constitute hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis — other supporting criteria include decreased NK cell activity and hemophagocytosis. The coagulation abnormalities are the point of the question: DIC is listed as a complication of HLH, not as an alternative diagnosis, alongside hepatitis, organ failure, and death. Stopping at A means treating a consequence and missing the disease that requires immunosuppression and chemotherapy. D is insufficient because ordinary mononucleosis does not produce pancytopenia with a ferritin of this magnitude. B and E would not explain the ferritin or the soluble IL-2 receptor.

76A patient with hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis has pancytopenia despite a florid systemic inflammatory state.Which best explains the cytopenias?

  • ACytokines suppress hematopoiesis while macrophages ingest blood cells
  • BMarrow space is replaced by a histiocytic neoplasm
  • CMassive splenomegaly sequesters all three cell lines
  • DAutoantibodies are formed against each hematopoietic lineage
  • EComplement-mediated lysis destroys circulating cells of every lineage present
Answer

A

This looks backwards at first, since a hyperinflammatory state might be expected to raise counts. Two mechanisms drive them down at once. The cytokine flood — particularly IFNγ and TNF, along with IL-6 and IL-12 released from activated macrophages and cytotoxic T cells — directly suppresses hematopoiesis at the marrow. Simultaneously, those activated macrophages are literally ingesting blood cells, the finding the disease is named for. Production falls while destruction rises, so every line drops. The same activated macrophages release ferritin as an acute phase reactant, which is why a very high ferritin is such a useful screening lab in a septic-appearing patient with falling counts. D, B, C, and E each propose a single mechanism that does not fit the syndrome.

77A 3-year-old with a two-week history of paroxysmal coughing has a white cell count of 32 ×10³/µL with 78% lymphocytes.Which mechanism accounts for the lymphocytosis?

  • AReactive expansion of cytotoxic T cells against infected epithelium
  • BA toxin that blocks lymphocyte egress from the circulation
  • CIncreased lymphoid production driven by bacterial antigen
  • DDemargination of lymphocytes from the vessel wall
  • EClonal proliferation of a lymphoid population
Answer

B

Bacteria classically cause neutrophilia, so Bordetella pertussis breaking that rule is exactly why it is examinable. It produces lymphocytosis-promoting factor, or pertussis toxin, which prevents lymphocytes from leaving the circulation. The mechanism deserves care: this is blocked egress, not increased production. Lymphocytes that would normally home into lymphoid tissue are stuck in the blood, so the peripheral count climbs without any true expansion of the lymphoid mass — which is what makes C the intended wrong answer. A describes the mechanism of infectious mononucleosis. D is the mechanism by which cortisol raises the neutrophil count. E would indicate a lymphoproliferative neoplasm rather than an infection.

78A 19-year-old college student has fever, exudative pharyngitis, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. The smear shows numerous large lymphocytes with abundant cytoplasm, and a heterophile antibody test is positive.What is the identity of the atypical lymphocytes?

  • AEpstein-Barr virus-infected B lymphocytes
  • BPlasma cells responding to viral antigen
  • CCirculating lymphoblasts
  • DMonocytes with reactive morphologic changes
  • EReactive CD8-positive cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Answer

E

This is the most commonly inverted fact about infectious mononucleosis. EBV infects B cells — along with oropharyngeal epithelial cells, producing the pharyngitis, and hepatocytes, producing the hepatitis — but the cells filling the smear are reactive CD8-positive cytotoxic T cells mounting a response against those infected B cells, which makes A the trap. The same logic explains the organ findings: the splenomegaly is hypertrophy of the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath, the T-cell zone of the spleen. The entire clinical picture is the host T-cell response rather than the virus itself, which is also why it takes weeks to settle and why splenic rupture is a risk. C would indicate acute leukemia.

79A 20-year-old with four days of fever, sore throat, and cervical lymphadenopathy has a negative monospot test. The clinical suspicion for infectious mononucleosis remains high.Which is the most appropriate next step?

  • ARepeat the monospot test again in six months
  • BBone marrow aspiration and biopsy
  • CSerology for EBV viral capsid antigen antibodies
  • DExcisional biopsy of an enlarged cervical lymph node
  • EFlow cytometry on a peripheral blood specimen
Answer

C

A negative monospot does not exclude mononucleosis, and there are two separate reasons that are tested as distinct stems. The illness may be caused by CMV rather than EBV, in which case heterophile antibodies are never produced. Or the patient may be in the window period — the first few days after infection, before heterophile antibodies appear — which fits this patient at day four. Either way the next step is EBV-specific serology for viral capsid antigen antibodies. A delays diagnosis pointlessly. B, E, and D are invasive investigations appropriate to suspected malignancy, and nothing here suggests that; note also that painful, tender nodes in an acute febrile illness favor an infectious process.

80A 54-year-old man with a perforated appendix has a white cell count of 68 ×10³/µL with numerous myelocytes and metamyelocytes.Which additional finding would most support chronic myeloid leukemia rather than a reactive process?

  • AAccompanying monocytosis
  • BProminent toxic granulation
  • CDöhle bodies within neutrophils
  • DAbsence of circulating nucleated red blood cells
  • EBasophilia and eosinophilia
Answer

E

A leukemoid reaction is leukocytosis with circulating immature granulocytes that mimics CML, which is what the name records, and it is usually driven by severe bacterial infection. Three findings distinguish it: a leukemoid reaction lacks eosinophilia, lacks basophilia, and lacks nucleated red cells. Of these, basophilia is the most useful positive marker of CML, since basophilia is rare and points to a myeloproliferative process whenever it appears. B and C are toxic changes, which are often present in a reactive process and therefore argue the opposite way. D also favors a reactive picture. A is a common accompaniment of reactive leukocytosis and does not distinguish the two.

81A 61-year-old woman with metastatic breast carcinoma has a white cell count of 17 ×10³/µL with a left shift, circulating nucleated red blood cells, and teardrop-shaped red cells. No toxic granulation is seen.Which best describes this blood picture?

  • AA leukemoid reaction to an occult infection
  • BA leukoerythroblastic picture indicating a marrow process
  • CChronic myeloid leukemia in chronic phase
  • DAcute myeloid leukemia with monocytic differentiation
  • EReticulocytosis from a compensated hemolytic anemia
Answer

B

A left shift alone says only that the marrow is being driven hard. Nucleated red blood cells in the peripheral blood mean something more specific: erythroid precursors must normally enucleate before they can exit, so their appearance indicates the marrow's architectural barrier has been breached — by tumor, fibrosis, or granuloma occupying marrow space. The absence of toxic changes points away from infection. So left shift plus nucleated RBCs without toxic changes means look at the marrow, whereas left shift plus toxic changes without nucleated RBCs means look for infection, which is A. This is the same myelophthisic process that produces myelophthisic anemia and extramedullary hematopoiesis, viewed from the smear.

82A lymph node biopsy from a patient with generalized lymphadenopathy shows enlarged follicles containing germinal centers that are polarized into dark and light zones, contain numerous tingible body macrophages, and are surrounded by intact mantle zones.Which is the correct interpretation?

  • AParacortical hyperplasia
  • BFollicular lymphoma
  • CFollicular hyperplasia, a reactive pattern
  • DSinus histiocytosis
  • EMetastatic carcinoma within the node
Answer

C

All three named features indicate a reactive germinal center, and each is the direct opposite of what follicular lymphoma shows — which is precisely why these are the features to know. Polarization into dark and light zones reflects an organized selection program that a neoplastic follicle has lost. Tingible body macrophages are clearing apoptotic B cells that failed selection, so their presence proves apoptosis is still occurring, whereas their absence in lymphoma reflects the anti-apoptotic BCL2 block. An intact mantle zone shows the follicle still respects its boundaries. Read together they say the follicle is following the rules. Follicular hyperplasia occupies the B-cell zone and is driven by autoimmune disease, infection, or vaccination.

83A 63-year-old man has a firm, non-tender 4 cm supraclavicular lymph node that has enlarged gradually over three months. He reports a 6 kg weight loss.Which feature of this presentation is most concerning?

  • AThe supraclavicular location alone
  • BThe absence of overlying erythema
  • CThe size exceeding 2 cm
  • DThe absence of tenderness
  • EThe absence of fluctuance
Answer

D

Pain is the highest-yield single discriminator, and it runs opposite to intuition about seriousness. Tender nodes are usually infectious and usually benign, because tenderness arises from rapid capsular stretch during acute inflammation. A painless node is the one that raises concern for malignancy, since a slowly infiltrating tumor expands the node too gradually to hurt — and the three-month course here reinforces that. C, B, and E are all consistent with the picture but are secondary: size and the absence of erythema or fluctuance simply reflect that this is not an acute suppurative process. A contributes real concern but is less discriminating than the character of the node itself.

Lecture 08 · Randall

Acute Leukemias

Questions 84–96

84A 63-year-old man has a white cell count of 8.2 ×10³/µL. Bone marrow examination shows 12% blasts with a full spectrum of maturing granulocytic forms.Which conclusion about classification is correct?

  • AThis meets criteria for acute leukemia because blasts are identifiable
  • BThe normal white cell count argues against any leukemic process
  • CAcute and chronic are distinguished by the rapidity of symptom onset
  • DThe blast percentage falls below the threshold, indicating a chronic process
  • EClassification cannot be attempted without flow cytometry
Answer

D

Acute leukemia is defined by ≥20% blasts in the blood or bone marrow. At 12%, with a spectrum of maturing granulocytic forms, this describes a chronic myeloid process — chronic leukemias are composed of more mature hematopoietic cells, with CML specifically carrying <20% blasts. A mistakes the mere presence of blasts for the threshold; a small percentage is normal in marrow. B is wrong because the total count does not define the category — acute leukemia may present with leukocytosis, a normal count, or pancytopenia. C is the most instructive error: despite the names, acute and chronic are defined by the maturity of the malignant cells, not the tempo of the illness. E overstates the case, since the blast percentage alone settles this question.

85A 5-year-old girl is diagnosed with B-lymphoblastic leukemia.Which cytogenetic finding would predict the most favorable outcome?

  • AHypodiploidy with 42 chromosomes
  • Bt(9;22); BCR::ABL1
  • CHyperdiploidy with 56 chromosomes
  • Dt(9;11); KMT2A::MLLT3
  • EA complex karyotype including del(7q)
Answer

C

Hyperdiploidy is defined as more than 50 chromosomes and is a good prognostic indicator in B-ALL, alongside t(12;21); ETV6::RUNX1 and age above 1 and below 10 — so this patient carries two favorable features. The pairing is easier to hold as a single idea: gaining chromosomes is good, losing them is bad. Hyperdiploid blasts behave as a less aggressive, more chemosensitive clone, while hypodiploid blasts have lost genetic material, and what tends to be lost includes tumor suppressor genes — which makes A unfavorable. B is the Philadelphia chromosome, poor in B-ALL. D is the one poor-risk lesion among the AML defining abnormalities. E describes the pattern of AML-MR and therapy-related disease.

86A 9-year-old boy is diagnosed with B-lymphoblastic leukemia. His white cell count at presentation is 142 ×10³/µL, and cytogenetics show t(9;22). Flow cytometry demonstrates CD10, CD19, TdT, and CD34.Which feature of this presentation is associated with a favorable outcome?

  • AThe white cell count
  • BThe patient's age
  • CThe translocation
  • DThe expression of CD34
  • EThe expression of TdT
Answer

B

His age of 9 falls within the favorable window of above 1 and below 10 — note that the lower bound exists because infants under 1 do poorly. Both other prognostic features here are unfavorable: a white count above 100K at presentation is a recognized poor sign rather than an incidental marker of disease burden, and t(9;22); BCR::ABL1 is poor in B-ALL. That translocation is worth holding as a two-sided fact, since in CML the same Philadelphia chromosome is the defining and therapeutically targetable lesion. D and E name diagnostic markers with no prognostic meaning: TdT indicates a lymphoblast and CD34 indicates a stem or progenitor cell, and neither is favorable or unfavorable.

87A 15-year-old boy presents with dyspnea and superior vena cava syndrome. Imaging shows a large anterior mediastinal mass. Biopsy demonstrates sheets of blasts expressing CD3, CD7, TdT, and CD34.Which statement about this disease is correct?

  • AIt represents roughly 85% of acute lymphoblastic leukemia
  • BThe TdT expression establishes B-lineage derivation
  • CIt carries a slightly better prognosis than B-ALL in children
  • DThe CD34 expression indicates myeloid derivation
  • EIt carries a slightly worse prognosis than B-ALL
Answer

E

An adolescent with a mediastinal or thymic mass is the classic T-ALL presentation — Teenagers with a Thymic mass — and its prognosis is slightly poorer than B-ALL, with roughly 70–80% cure. The reason for the mass is anatomic: T lymphoblasts mature in the thymus, so a T-cell clone expands in the anterior mediastinum and presents as a mass, whereas B lymphoblasts develop in the marrow and spill into blood. A describes B-ALL. B and D misread the markers: TdT is expressed by both B- and T-lymphoblasts and CD34 is positive in both ALL and AML, so neither establishes lineage — here CD3 and CD7 do. C inverts the prognostic comparison.

88Flow cytometry on a marrow aspirate demonstrates that the blast population expresses CD34.What does this finding establish?

  • AThe blasts are of lymphoid lineage
  • BThe blasts are of myeloid lineage
  • CThe blasts are B-lineage specifically
  • DThe blasts represent acute promyelocytic leukemia
  • EThe blasts are immature, but lineage remains undetermined
Answer

E

CD34 is a stem cell antigen and is positive in both ALL and AML, so on its own it reports only that the cell is a stem or progenitor cell — it carries no lineage information at all. The markers that do assign lineage are CD10 and CD19 for B-lineage, the CD1a–CD8 series for T-lineage, and CD33, CD117, and MPO for myeloid. A companion fact worth pairing with this: TdT is expressed by both B- and T-lymphoblasts, so it establishes that a cell is a lymphoblast without telling you which kind. D is doubly wrong, since APL is characteristically CD34-negative despite being myeloid.

89A 58-year-old woman has 40% blasts in the marrow. Careful examination identifies a slender pink cytoplasmic inclusion within one blast.What does this finding establish?

  • AThe leukemia is of myeloid lineage
  • BThe leukemia carries a favorable cytogenetic abnormality
  • CThe blasts express CD34
  • DThe diagnosis is acute promyelocytic leukemia
  • EFlow cytometry is no longer necessary for classification
Answer

A

The inclusion is an Auer rod, which is nothing more exotic than crystallized myeloperoxidase aggregating in the cytoplasm. Because only myeloid cells make MPO, an Auer rod is a visible confession of lineage — Auer rods are present only in myeloid blasts, so finding one eliminates the lymphoid possibilities without flow cytometry. It establishes nothing further. B is wrong because prognosis in AML derives from karyotype and molecular testing. C is wrong and is a useful reminder that APL is MPO-positive but CD34-negative. D overreaches, since APL requires t(15;17); PML::RARA. E is wrong because subclassification still requires flow, cytogenetics, and NGS.

90A 40-year-old man with newly diagnosed acute myeloid leukemia develops diffuse oozing from venipuncture sites. PT and aPTT are prolonged, fibrinogen is 74 mg/dL, and D-dimer is markedly elevated. Cytogenetics show t(15;17).Which mechanism links this leukemia to the coagulopathy?

  • ABlasts consume platelets directly within marrow sinusoids
  • BThe PML::RARA fusion protein cleaves fibrinogen
  • CCytoplasmic granules within the abnormal promyelocytes are rich in procoagulants
  • DThrombocytopenia from marrow replacement fully accounts for the picture
  • EAn autoantibody against factor VIII has developed as a paraneoplastic phenomenon
Answer

C

This is acute promyelocytic leukemia, defined by t(15;17); PML::RARA. The fusion produces a retinoic acid receptor that no longer responds to physiologic ligand, so the clone arrests at the promyelocyte stage — and the promyelocyte is precisely the stage packed with primary granules. Those granules contain procoagulants, so when the cells lyse they release that material into the circulation and trigger DIC, which is what the prolonged times, low fibrinogen, and elevated D-dimer describe. D is insufficient because isolated thrombocytopenia does not prolong PT and aPTT or consume fibrinogen. A, B, and E propose mechanisms that are not features of this disease.

91A patient with acute promyelocytic leukemia is treated with an agent that targets the underlying molecular lesion.Which best describes how that agent works?

  • AIt inhibits the fusion tyrosine kinase produced by the translocation
  • BIt supplies ligand that overcomes the receptor defect
  • CIt inhibits terminal complement, protecting the cells from lysis
  • DIt depletes CD20-positive cells that sustain the clone
  • EIt directly inhibits thrombin generated by the granule contents
Answer

B

RARA is the retinoic acid receptor alpha, and it normally drives promyelocytes to differentiate into mature granulocytes. Fusion to PML yields a receptor that no longer responds to physiologic retinoic acid, so the cell arrests. Because the problem is a receptor-sensitivity defect rather than a missing receptor, giving pharmacologic doses of all-trans retinoic acid overwhelms it, forces differentiation, and the cells mature and die on schedule. This is differentiation therapy — one of the few malignancies treated by making the cells grow up rather than by killing them. A describes imatinib in CML, D rituximab, C eculizumab, and E a direct thrombin inhibitor.

92Flow cytometry on a marrow aspirate shows a blast population that is positive for MPO, CD33, and CD117 but negative for CD34.Which interpretation is most appropriate?

  • AThe CD34 negativity excludes acute myeloid leukemia
  • BThis pattern is expected in acute promyelocytic leukemia
  • CThis pattern favors acute megakaryoblastic leukemia
  • DThe MPO result is likely artifactual given the absent CD34
  • EThis phenotype is characteristic of B-lymphoblastic leukemia
Answer

B

APL blasts are CD34 negative while remaining positive for MPO, CD33, and CD117 — the exception to the usual AML immunophenotype, and the logic is worth holding rather than memorizing. CD34 is a stem cell antigen, and APL is arrested at the promyelocyte stage, which lies further along the maturation sequence than a stem cell, so the antigen has already been lost. The phenotype is telling you where the block sits. A is wrong for exactly that reason. E is wrong because B-ALL blasts express CD10, CD19, TdT, and CD34 and are MPO-negative. C is wrong because megakaryoblastic leukemia is MPO-negative, and MPO is present here.

93A 55-year-old woman has a white cell count of 180 ×10³/µL and markedly swollen, infiltrated gingivae. Marrow blasts are MPO negative and express monocytic markers.Which conclusion follows?

  • AThe MPO negativity establishes lymphoid lineage
  • BThe gingival findings indicate a leukemoid reaction to periodontal infection
  • CThis is acute monocytic leukemia, a myeloid neoplasm classified by differentiation
  • DAuer rods should be identifiable given the very high white cell count
  • EThis presentation is most characteristic of Down syndrome
Answer

C

Acute monocytic or monoblastic leukemia presents with a high white count and gingival involvement, and its monoblasts are MPO-negative. It belongs to the AML defined by differentiation group — the wastebasket for AMLs not otherwise defined by clinical history or cytogenetics, comprising eight subtypes analogous to the historic FAB M0–M7 system. A is the central trap: MPO-negative does not mean lymphoid, because MPO is made by the granulocytic arm and monocytes branch away from it while remaining firmly myeloid. B ignores the blast population. D is impossible, since Auer rods are aggregates of MPO and cannot form in an MPO-negative blast. E describes megakaryoblastic leukemia.

94A 3-year-old child with Down syndrome develops an acute leukemia. The blasts are MPO negative, express megakaryocytic markers, and lack lymphoid antigens.Which is the most likely diagnosis?

  • AB-lymphoblastic leukemia
  • BAcute monocytic leukemia
  • CAcute promyelocytic leukemia
  • DAcute megakaryoblastic leukemia
  • EAcute myeloid leukemia with t(8;21)
Answer

D

Acute megakaryoblastic leukemia features MPO-negative megakaryoblasts, belongs to the AML defined by differentiation group, and is associated with Down syndrome in early childhood — the megakaryocytic markers settle it. A is the strongest distractor on epidemiology alone, since ALL is the most common childhood cancer and children with Down syndrome are at increased risk of leukemia generally — but B-ALL blasts express CD10, CD19, TdT, and CD34, and the stem states lymphoid antigens are absent. B is the other MPO-negative subtype, but it is identified by monocytic markers and gingival involvement. C is MPO-positive and defined by t(15;17).

95A 61-year-old man treated six years ago with an alkylating agent for lymphoma now presents with acute myeloid leukemia. The karyotype is complex and includes del(7q).Which statement is most accurate?

  • AThis represents transformation of the original lymphoma rather than a new neoplasm
  • BTherapy-related disease is characteristically associated with an isolated balanced translocation
  • CTopoisomerase inhibitors are the only drug class implicated in this complication
  • DThis is secondary AML, which most often falls into the AML-MR category and carries a very poor prognosis
  • EThe presence of a defining cytogenetic abnormality places this in the favorable risk group
Answer

D

Secondary, therapy-related AML follows cytotoxic chemotherapy for a solid or hematopoietic tumor, most often falls into the AML-MR category, shows a complex karyotype, and carries a very poor prognosis. E misreads defining abnormality as favorable, but a complex karyotype with del(7q) is an MDS-defining, poor-risk pattern — quite unlike the favorable single lesions t(8;21), inv(16), t(15;17), and mutated NPM1. The underlying principle is that both AML-MR and therapy-related AML arise from a marrow that was already genomically damaged: one driver lesion is treatable, a shattered genome is not. B inverts the genetics, and C is too narrow, since alkylating agents are implicated as well. A is wrong because this is a new myeloid neoplasm arising from mutagenized stem cells.

96A 68-year-old man with acute myeloid leukemia has a white cell count of 84 ×10³/µL, of which 90% are blasts. His absolute neutrophil count is 0.4 ×10³/µL. He presents with fever and hypotension.Which best explains his susceptibility to infection?

  • ABlasts consume complement components, impairing opsonization of bacteria
  • BThe mature neutrophil count is low and blasts are non-functional
  • CLeukostasis impairs perfusion of lymphoid organs
  • DThe blasts secrete immunosuppressive cytokines
  • EChemotherapy has not yet been administered
Answer

B

A markedly elevated white cell count can be reassuring in a way that is entirely misleading. The count is high because blasts are spilling into the blood, not because mature neutrophils are being produced — and blasts cannot perform chemotaxis, phagocytosis, or killing. The absolute neutrophil count of 0.4 confirms it, sitting below the 0.5 threshold at which opportunistic infection risk climbs steeply. The patient is functionally neutropenic despite a white count of 84, which is why infection is a leading cause of death in acute leukemia. The practical lesson is to look at the differential rather than the total. A, C, D, and E propose mechanisms that are not the explanation for the infection risk here.

Lecture 09 · Randall

Myelodysplastic Neoplasms / Syndromes

Questions 97–104

97A 71-year-old man is found on a routine CBC to have a hemoglobin of 9.4 g/dL, a white cell count of 2.8 ×10³/µL, and a platelet count of 88 ×10³/µL.Which marrow finding would best support myelodysplastic neoplasm over aplastic anemia?

  • AA markedly hypocellular marrow with normal-appearing residual cells and no dysplasia
  • BA hypercellular marrow with dysplastic changes in multiple lineages
  • CA marrow replaced by fibrous tissue and collagen
  • DA marrow infiltrated by metastatic carcinoma
  • EA normocellular marrow with increased iron stores
Answer

B

Both diseases present with cytopenias, so the blood count cannot separate them — the marrow points in opposite directions. MDS is a disorder of ineffective hematopoiesis: cells are produced in abundance but carry maturation defects and die before reaching the circulation, so the marrow is hypercellular with dysplasia while the blood is empty. A is the aplastic anemia pattern, where the marrow is genuinely empty and the remaining cells look normal. C and D describe myelophthisic processes, which would also produce a leukoerythroblastic smear. E fits no cause of pancytopenia in this material.

98A marrow aspirate from a patient with suspected MDS shows dysplastic erythroid precursors.What proportion of cells in a lineage must be dysplastic for that lineage to count as significant?

  • AMore than 2%
  • BMore than 5%
  • CMore than 10%
  • DMore than 20%
  • EMore than 50%
Answer

C

Dysplasia requires greater than 10% dysplastic cells in a respective lineage to be significant. The threshold exists because occasional dysplastic-looking cells are found in normal marrow and in reactive states such as nutritional deficiency, so a cutoff is needed to separate incidental atypia from a clonal disorder. Do not confuse this figure with the blast thresholds, which are entirely separate: ≥5% blasts in marrow or ≥2% in blood counts as increased blasts and worsens the prognostic score, and ≥20% means the disease is now AML.

99A peripheral smear from a 68-year-old with pancytopenia shows neutrophils with bilobed, spectacle-shaped nuclei and markedly reduced cytoplasmic granules.How are these findings best described?

  • AToxic granulation with Döhle bodies
  • BHypersegmentation from megaloblastic maturation
  • CPseudo-Pelger-Huët change with hypogranulation
  • DAuer rods within maturing granulocytes
  • ELeukoerythroblastic change from marrow infiltration
Answer

C

These are the two classic features of granulocytic dysplasia: hypolobation, described as pseudo-Pelger-Huët or “pelgeroid” change and sometimes producing unilobate forms, together with hypogranulation. Both record a cell that began a maturation program and failed to complete it — a neutrophil should segment its nucleus and fill with granules, and this one did neither. A describes reactive changes seen in infection and would argue for a leukemoid reaction. B is a feature of megaloblastic anemia, though hypersegmentation is also a less common dysplastic change. D indicates myeloid blasts in acute leukemia.

100A patient with MDS has 7% blasts in the bone marrow and 3% blasts in the peripheral blood.How should these findings be interpreted?

  • ABlasts are increased by both criteria, worsening the prognostic score
  • BBlasts are increased in the marrow only
  • CBlasts are increased in the blood only
  • DBlasts are not increased by either criterion
  • EThe disease now meets the diagnostic criteria for acute myeloid leukemia rather than MDS
Answer

A

Increased blasts means ≥5% in the marrow and/or ≥2% in the peripheral blood, and this patient exceeds both. That matters because the prognostic score in MDS is assigned from cytogenetic abnormalities, blast percentage, and degree of cytopenia, so increased blasts worsen the outlook and raise the risk of progression. E is wrong because ≥20% in either compartment is required to call AML. Note that the marrow threshold is higher than the blood threshold, because a small blast population is normal in marrow and abnormal in blood.

101Cytogenetic analysis is performed on a newly diagnosed case of myelodysplastic neoplasm.Which abnormality is among the most commonly identified?

  • At(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2); BCR::ABL1
  • BMonosomy 7 or deletion of 7q
  • CJAK2 V617F
  • Dt(15;17)(q24;q21); PML::RARA
  • Et(8;14); IGH::MYC
Answer

B

The recurrent cytogenetic abnormalities in MDS are −5/del(5q), −7/del(7q), and complex karyotype defined as ≥3 aberrations. Note the pattern: these are losses of genetic material and chaotic karyotypes rather than clean balanced translocations, which is why MDS carries the prognostic profile it does and why there is no single driver mutation present across the board. A is the defining lesion of CML, B of acute promyelocytic leukemia, C of the myeloproliferative neoplasms, and E of Burkitt lymphoma — all specific lesions defining specific diseases, in contrast to the pattern here.

102Two patients are diagnosed with MDS on the same day. One has de novo disease; the other developed MDS after cytotoxic chemotherapy for breast cancer.Which statement about the therapy-related case is correct?

  • AIt carries a substantially lower risk of progression to acute myeloid leukemia
  • BIt is not associated with cytogenetic abnormalities
  • CIt has the most aggressive course and the highest rate of progression to AML
  • DIt responds better to hypomethylating agents
  • EIt should be reclassified as acute myeloid leukemia
Answer

C

MDS after cytotoxic therapy has the highest risk of progression to AML and the most rapid clinical course. The reasoning parallels therapy-related AML from Lecture 08: the marrow stem cell pool was mutagenized before the disease began, so the clone that emerges arises from a background of widespread genomic damage rather than a single clean lesion — which is what a complex karyotype reports. A inverts the relationship. B is wrong because these cases characteristically show complex cytogenetics. E is wrong because classification still requires ≥20% blasts to call AML.

103A 52-year-old man with high-risk MDS is otherwise fit and has an HLA-matched sibling.Which treatment offers the possibility of cure?

  • AHypomethylating agent therapy
  • BA BCL2 inhibitor
  • CAllogeneic stem cell transplantation
  • DErythropoietin with G-CSF support
  • EThalidomide-like therapy
Answer

C

In younger patients with high-risk disease, allogeneic stem cell transplant is potentially curative — it is the only option listed that replaces the abnormal clone rather than managing its consequences. The remaining choices are all genuine MDS therapies, which is why they are listed, but they belong to the other arm of the algorithm: in older patients or those who cannot undergo transplant, treatment is aimed at improving cytopenias and preventing complications using hypomethylating agents, BCL2 inhibitors, thalidomide-like therapies, and growth factor support. That distinction — curative intent versus supportive intent — is driven by patient fitness as much as by disease risk.

104A hematologist is distinguishing among the chronic myeloid neoplasms.Which feature best separates a myelodysplastic neoplasm from a myeloproliferative neoplasm?

  • AMarrow cellularity
  • BThe peripheral blood count
  • CThe presence of organomegaly
  • DPatient age at presentation
  • EThe percentage of blasts in the marrow
Answer

B

The three categories of chronic myeloid neoplasm are distinguished first by the peripheral blood count, then further defined by marrow morphology and genetics. MPN produces cytoses; MDS produces cytopenias. A is the trap and the reason this question exists: both have a hypercellular marrow, so cellularity is precisely the feature that fails to separate them. The explanation is that in MPN the cells successfully reach the blood, whereas in MDS they carry maturation defects and die before release. C and D overlap substantially between the two, and E is not increased in either by definition, since ≥20% blasts would make the disease acute.

Lecture 10 · PALM 820

Myeloproliferative Neoplasms

Questions 105–116

105A 54-year-old man has a white cell count of 78 ×10³/µL with myelocytes and metamyelocytes on the smear. There is no toxic granulation.Which additional finding would most support chronic myeloid leukemia?

  • AProminent Döhle bodies within neutrophils
  • BAn accompanying monocytosis above 10%
  • CAbsolute basophilia with eosinophilia
  • DAbsence of circulating nucleated red cells
  • EA platelet count below the reference range
Answer

C

Absolute basophilia and eosinophilia are characteristic of CML chronic phase, and basophilia is the most useful single positive marker because basophils are rare in reactive states. A leukemoid reaction, by contrast, lacks basophilia, lacks eosinophilia, and lacks nucleated red cells, while showing toxic granulation and Döhle bodies — so A argues the opposite way. B misstates the CML pattern, which includes an absolute monocytosis with a relative percentage under 3%. D is characteristic of a reactive process. E is wrong because platelets in CML are normal to increased.

106A 58-year-old woman is being evaluated for a suspected myeloproliferative neoplasm.Which test should be performed first?

  • ABCR::ABL1 testing by FISH or PCR
  • BCALR sequencing
  • CMPL sequencing
  • DJAK2 V617F analysis
  • EBone marrow biopsy with reticulin staining
Answer

A

The diagnostic approach runs clinical suspicion → BCR::ABL1 testing → JAK2, then CALR and MPL → hematology/oncology referral for marrow biopsy. BCR::ABL1 comes first because it is present in 100% of CML and its presence or absence partitions the entire differential in a single step; every other MPN requires that CML be excluded. D, B, and C are the correct second step, and notably JAK2, CALR and MPL are shared between ET and PMF, so they cannot separate those two. E is essential for primary myelofibrosis specifically, but it follows rather than precedes the molecular testing.

107A 62-year-old man has a hemoglobin of 19.2 g/dL and a hematocrit of 57%. He reports headaches and generalized itching after hot showers.Which laboratory finding would best support polycythemia vera rather than a secondary erythrocytosis?

  • AA subnormal serum erythropoietin level
  • BAn elevated serum erythropoietin level
  • CAn elevated red cell distribution width
  • DAn elevated serum ferritin level
  • EA normal serum erythropoietin level
Answer

A

In secondary erythrocytosis — hypoxia, altitude, an erythropoietin-secreting tumor — the marrow is responding appropriately to a signal, so EPO is normal or high. In polycythemia vera the JAK2-mutated progenitor no longer needs the signal; it makes red cells autonomously, and the body responds by suppressing EPO. A subnormal EPO alongside a high hematocrit is physiologically impossible unless production has become independent of regulation, which is why it serves as the minor diagnostic criterion. B and E describe secondary causes. D is not part of the criteria. E would not distinguish the two conditions.

108A 60-year-old woman with polycythemia vera develops abdominal pain, ascites, and tender hepatomegaly. Imaging shows hepatic vein thrombosis.Which complication does this represent?

  • APortal vein thrombosis
  • BBudd-Chiari syndrome
  • CMesenteric venous thrombosis
  • DSplenic vein thrombosis
  • EPost-polycythemic myelofibrosis
Answer

B

Budd-Chiari syndrome is hepatic vein thrombosis, and it is specifically named among the thrombotic complications of polycythemia vera. Thrombosis occurs in 20–25% of patients and may be arterial or venous, with a striking predilection for mesenteric, portal, and splenic veins in addition to the hepatic veins — which is why A, C, and D are all genuine PV complications and are listed here as plausible alternatives, distinguished only by the vessel involved. E is the spent phase, a late marrow event rather than a thrombotic one. Note that Budd-Chiari also occurs in essential thrombocythemia.

109A 55-year-old woman has a persistent platelet count of 780 ×10³/µL. Hemoglobin and white cell count are normal. The marrow shows increased large megakaryocytes with hyperlobated nuclei.Which is the most likely diagnosis?

  • APolycythemia vera
  • BEssential thrombocythemia
  • CChronic myeloid leukemia
  • DPrimary myelofibrosis, overt fibrotic stage
  • EReactive thrombocytosis
Answer

B

Essential thrombocythemia is sustained thrombocytosis above 450 ×10&sup9;/L predominantly involving the megakaryocyte lineage, with increased large to giant megakaryocytes having hyperlobated, “staghorn-like” nuclei and no significant erythroid or granulocytic increase — which the normal hemoglobin and white count confirm. A and C would show expansion of other lineages. D is possible, since PMF can present with isolated thrombocytosis, but the overt fibrotic stage requires grade 2 or 3 reticulin fibrosis, which is not described. E remains a formal exclusion in the criteria but does not explain the abnormal megakaryocyte morphology.

110A 68-year-old man has anemia, a palpable spleen extending to the pelvis, and a smear showing nucleated red cells, immature granulocytes, and teardrop-shaped red cells.Which is the most likely diagnosis?

  • APrimary myelofibrosis
  • BPolycythemia vera, polycythemic phase
  • CChronic myeloid leukemia, chronic phase
  • DEssential thrombocythemia
  • EMyelodysplastic neoplasm
Answer

A

The combination of massive splenomegaly, a leukoerythroblastic smear, and teardrop cells is primary myelofibrosis. The mechanism explains all three at once: collagen replacing marrow space squeezes precursors out prematurely, giving the leukoerythroblastic picture and deforming red cells into teardrops as they exit, while hematopoiesis relocates to the fetal sites, producing extramedullary hematopoiesis in spleen and liver and therefore enormous organomegaly. This is the same myelophthisic mechanism as marrow-infiltrating tumor from Lecture 01. D and B are other MPNs without fibrosis at presentation. E would not produce this degree of splenomegaly.

111A bone marrow biopsy in chronic myeloid leukemia is examined.Which megakaryocyte morphology is expected?

  • ALarge, giant forms with hyperlobated staghorn nuclei
  • BPleomorphic and hypersegmented, in loose clusters near trabeculae
  • CMarkedly hypolobated with separate nuclei in pawn-ball arrangement
  • DSmall, hyposegmented “dwarf” forms
  • EClustered and hyperchromatic with bare nuclei
Answer

D

Megakaryocyte morphology is one of the few things that differs by disease in a group where cell morphology is otherwise normal, so it is worth holding as a set. CML gives smaller than normal, hyposegmented “dwarf” megakaryocytes. A describes essential thrombocythemia, B describes polycythemia vera, and E describes the atypical megakaryocytes of primary myelofibrosis, which also show clustering and marked size variation adjacent to trabeculae or sinuses. C is megakaryocytic dysplasia in MDS, a different disease category entirely.

112A patient with chronic myeloid leukemia on imatinib develops fatigue and bone pain. Marrow examination now shows 34% blasts.Which statement is correct?

  • AThis remains chronic phase with adverse risk features
  • BThis represents blast phase, usually a myeloblast crisis
  • CThis represents blast phase, usually a lymphoblast crisis
  • DThis indicates transformation to a myelodysplastic neoplasm
  • EThis is within the expected range for treated chronic phase
Answer

B

Blast phase is diagnosed at ≥20% blasts in peripheral blood or bone marrow, and it is typically a myeloblast crisis, with a minority having a lymphoblast crisis — which makes C the near-miss. A is wrong because the adverse-risk band in chronic phase is 10–19% blasts, along with ≥20% basophils, new chromosome abnormalities, and TKI resistance; 34% is past that. E is wrong because chronic phase requires blasts under 5%. Note that the ≥20% threshold is identical to the definition of acute leukemia — blast phase is a chronic myeloid neoplasm becoming acute, and it carries a poor prognosis. Extramedullary blast proliferation may involve skin, lymph nodes, bone, and CNS.

113Molecular testing on a patient with a myeloproliferative neoplasm returns a JAK2 V617F mutation.What does this result establish?

  • AAn MPN is supported, but the specific entity is not determined
  • BThe diagnosis is essential thrombocythemia
  • CThe diagnosis is primary myelofibrosis
  • DChronic myeloid leukemia is confirmed
  • EThe diagnosis is polycythemia vera rather than another myeloid neoplasm
Answer

A

JAK2 is shared across polycythemia vera, essential thrombocythemia, and primary myelofibrosis — present in over 95% of PV and in 50–60% of both ET and PMF, which also share CALR at 30% and MPL. The mutation confirms a clonal myeloproliferative process but cannot say which one, which is precisely why the WHO criteria for each disease include a clause requiring that the criteria for the others are not met, and why a marrow biopsy is essential for primary myelofibrosis. D is excluded because CML is defined by BCR::ABL1, present in 100% of cases and tested for first.

114A patient with a ten-year history of polycythemia vera no longer requires phlebotomy. Hemoglobin is now 9.8 g/dL and the spleen has enlarged further.Which best explains this change?

  • AThe disease has entered the spent phase with marrow fibrosis
  • BThe patient has developed iron deficiency from prior phlebotomy
  • CThe disease has entered remission
  • DA secondary acute leukemia has developed
  • EHydroxyurea has produced an expected therapeutic response
Answer

A

The spent phase, or post-polycythemic myelofibrosis, is marked by cytopenias and ineffective hematopoiesis: the red cell mass normalizes and then decreases, producing the loss of the phlebotomy requirement, while progressive reticulin and collagenous fibrosis drive a leukoerythroblastic smear with teardrop cells and progressive organomegaly. C is the trap this question is built around — not needing phlebotomy sounds like improvement but signals a failing, fibrosing marrow. D is possible in PV, particularly after cytotoxic agents, but would require increased blasts, which are not described.

115A patient with a myeloproliferative neoplasm undergoes bone marrow examination.Which combination of findings is expected?

  • AHypocellular marrow, maturation present, blasts not increased
  • BHypercellular marrow, maturation blocked, blasts above 20%
  • CHypercellular marrow, maturation present, blasts not increased
  • DHypercellular marrow, maturation defective, prominent dysplasia
  • ENormocellular marrow with fibrosis and no cellular expansion
Answer

C

The shared MPN profile is increased cellularity, maturation present, normal cell morphology, and blasts typically not increased. This follows directly from the molecular lesion: a constitutively active tyrosine kinase delivers a permanent growth signal but does not break the maturation program, so cells proliferate and still mature normally. B describes acute leukemia, where maturation is blocked at the blast stage. D describes MDS, where maturation is defective and cells die in the marrow. A and E fit no chronic myeloid neoplasm. The one morphologic exception within MPN is the megakaryocyte, whose appearance differs by disease.

116A 61-year-old man with polycythemia vera has an MCV of 74 fL and hypochromic red cells. Marrow iron staining shows absent stainable iron.Which best explains these findings?

  • ACoexisting thalassemia trait
  • BAnemia of chronic disease from the underlying neoplasm
  • CSideroblastic change from clonal evolution
  • DIron consumption by the expanded erythron and repeated phlebotomy
  • EOccult gastrointestinal blood loss unrelated to the neoplasm
Answer

D

It looks contradictory to find microcytic hypochromic cells and absent marrow iron in a disease of too many red cells, and that tension is the point. The expanded erythron burns through iron stores making all those cells, and therapeutic phlebotomy removes more iron with every unit taken. The patient becomes iron deficient while remaining polycythemic — which is why the lecture explicitly lists both normocytic normochromic or microcytic hypochromic red cells and absent marrow iron as expected findings. B would show increased stores, since iron is trapped rather than depleted. A and E propose unrelated diagnoses, and C would show ring sideroblasts with iron present.

Lecture 11 · Randall

B-cell Lymphomas

Questions 117–130

117A 68-year-old man is found on a routine CBC to have a white cell count of 32 ×10³/µL with 82% small mature lymphocytes. Numerous smudge cells are present.Which statement about this condition is correct?

  • AIt arises from a germinal center B cell
  • BThe smudge cells represent a distinct neoplastic population
  • CIt is the same disease as small lymphocytic lymphoma
  • DIt is aggressive and requires immediate intensive chemotherapy
  • EIt is curable with combination chemotherapy in most patients
Answer

C

CLL and SLL are the same disease, distinguished only by where it is found — blood and marrow only is CLL, which is the majority, and tissue only is SLL. Many patients have both. A is wrong because the cell of origin is a naïve B cell. B is a common misconception: smudge cells are an artifact, produced when fragile CLL lymphocytes rupture as the smear is spread — a diagnostic clue rather than a cell type. D and E both misstate the behavior, since CLL/SLL is indolent and incurable, and small B-cell lymphomas respond poorly to intensive chemotherapy because of their low proliferative rate.

118A 70-year-old woman with a five-year history of CLL/SLL develops rapidly enlarging cervical lymph nodes, fever, and weight loss over three weeks.Which development is most likely?

  • ARichter syndrome with transformation to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
  • BAutoimmune hemolytic anemia
  • CProlymphocytic progression
  • DProgression to acute lymphoblastic leukemia
  • EDevelopment of hypogammaglobulinemia with recurrent bacterial infection
Answer

A

Richter syndrome is transformation of CLL/SLL to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, and it is characterized clinically by rapidly enlarging lymph nodes in a patient with known CLL/SLL — precisely the vignette. C is the other recognized transformation, occurring in 10–30%, but prolymphocytic progression is a change in the circulating population rather than an abrupt nodal mass. B and E are genuine complications of CLL/SLL and are listed for that reason, but neither produces rapidly enlarging nodes: autoimmune hemolytic anemia causes anemia and jaundice, and hypogammaglobulinemia causes infections. D is not a recognized transformation of CLL.

119A 57-year-old man has painless generalized lymphadenopathy. Node biopsy shows a nodular proliferation of small cleaved cells. FISH demonstrates t(14;18).Which gene is placed under IGH promoter control?

  • ACCND1
  • BMALT1
  • CMYC
  • DBCL2
  • EBIRC3
Answer

D

t(14;18) moves BCL2 from chromosome 18 to the IGH locus on chromosome 14, causing overexpression of BCL2, an anti-apoptotic molecule that is normally NOT expressed in germinal centers. This is follicular lymphoma, the second most common lymphoma after DLBCL, arising from a germinal center B cell. A is the partner in t(11;14), defining mantle cell lymphoma through cyclin D1. C is the partner in t(8;14), defining Burkitt lymphoma. B and E are the partners in t(11;18) BIRC3::MALT1, associated with gastric MALT lymphoma. All four translocations share the theme of an oncogene driven by an immunoglobulin promoter.

120A pathologist compares a reactive germinal center with a follicle from a patient with follicular lymphoma.Which feature is characteristic of the neoplastic follicle?

  • APolarization into dark and light zones
  • BNumerous tingible body macrophages
  • CAn intact surrounding mantle zone
  • DA high proportion of cells undergoing apoptosis
  • EAbsence of tingible body macrophages
Answer

E

The germinal center normally works by deliberately killing most of the cells in it — B cells mutate their antibody genes at random, most produce a worse or autoreactive antibody, and those are driven into apoptosis. Tingible body macrophages are the cells clearing that debris, so their presence proves apoptosis is occurring. In follicular lymphoma, t(14;18) switches BCL2 back on permanently, apoptosis is blocked, and the macrophages disappear. A, B, C, and D are all features of a reactive follicle from Lecture 07, each reflecting an organized selection program the neoplastic follicle has lost. The same failure to die explains why follicular lymphoma is indolent yet incurable.

121A 66-year-old man has widespread lymphadenopathy, marrow involvement, and polypoid lesions throughout the colon. Tumor cells are CD5-positive and strongly express cyclin D1.Which statement about this lymphoma is correct?

  • AIt is the aggressive exception among small B-cell lymphomas
  • BIt commonly undergoes Richter transformation to DLBCL
  • CIt carries t(14;18) involving BCL2
  • DIt arises from a germinal center B cell
  • EIt is indolent, like other small B-cell lymphomas
Answer

A

Cyclin D1 expression with a CD5-positive phenotype and lymphomatoid polyposis identifies mantle cell lymphoma, defined by t(11;14) placing CCND1 under IGH control. It is the EXCEPTION to the indolent nature of small B-cell lymphomasincurable and aggressive, yet still too slowly growing to respond to intensive chemotherapy, with roughly 3–5 year survival. That combination is the worst of both worlds and is exactly why it is singled out, making E incorrect. B is wrong because mantle cell shows no Richter transformation; aggressive variants remain mantle cell. C names the follicular lymphoma translocation, and D is wrong because the cell of origin is a naïve, pre-germinal center B cell.

122A 64-year-old woman with a gastric MALT lymphoma is treated with H. pylori eradication therapy. The lymphoma fails to regress. FISH shows t(11;18).Which best explains the treatment failure?

  • AThe translocation indicates transformation to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
  • BThe translocation prevents antibiotics from reaching the gastric mucosa
  • CThe translocation renders the clone independent of antigenic stimulation
  • DThe organism was never present in this patient
  • EThe translocation confers resistance to the antibiotics themselves
Answer

C

Gastric MALT begins as a chronically antigen-driven proliferation — there is no MALT in the normal stomach, and H. pylori recruits it. Persistent stimulation keeps the B cells dividing until a clone emerges that is still dependent on that stimulus, which is why eradication is often curative. Once t(11;18) (BIRC3::MALT1) occurs, the clone acquires an autonomous proliferative signal and no longer needs the antigen, so removing the organism accomplishes nothing. The translocation marks the transition from antigen-dependent to antigen-independent growth. A is a different event entirely, and B, D, and E propose mechanisms with no basis.

123A 72-year-old man has fatigue, blurred vision, and mucosal bleeding. Serum viscosity is markedly elevated and protein electrophoresis shows an IgM monoclonal spike. Marrow shows a lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate.Which is the most appropriate immediate treatment for his visual symptoms?

  • AHigh-dose corticosteroids
  • BPlasmapheresis
  • CRed cell transfusion
  • DRituximab monotherapy
  • EAllogeneic stem cell transplantation
Answer

B

This is Waldenström macroglobulinemia, defined as lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma in the marrow plus an IgM monoclonal gammopathy plus hyperviscosity syndrome, and hyperviscosity is treated with plasmapheresis. The mechanism explains the choice: IgM is a large pentamer that raises serum viscosity directly, so physically removing it relieves symptoms within hours, whereas therapies directed at the clone take weeks. C would be actively harmful, since adding red cells raises viscosity further. D and A may have a role in treating the underlying lymphoma but do not address the immediate emergency.

124A marrow biopsy shows a lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate. Molecular testing is performed to support the diagnosis.Which mutation is present in more than 90% of cases?

  • ABRAF V600E
  • BBCL2 rearrangement
  • CJAK2 V617F
  • DMYD88 L265P
  • EMYC rearrangement
Answer

D

Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma has no recurrent chromosomal abnormalities, which distinguishes it from most of the small B-cell lymphomas, but MYD88 L265P is present in over 90% of cases and therefore carries the diagnostic weight a translocation would carry elsewhere. A is the mutation of hairy cell leukemia, present in essentially 100% of those cases, and also appears in Langerhans cell histiocytosis. C defines the myeloproliferative neoplasms. B indicates follicular lymphoma and E indicates Burkitt lymphoma, both structural rearrangements rather than point mutations.

125A 61-year-old man has massive splenomegaly and pancytopenia. He has no palpable lymphadenopathy. Bone marrow aspiration yields a dry tap, and the core biopsy shows small lymphocytes with abundant pale cytoplasm and reticulin fibrosis.Which additional finding would best support the diagnosis?

  • AAn absolute monocytosis
  • BA t(11;14) translocation
  • CGeneralized lymphadenopathy on imaging
  • DAn absolute monocytopenia
  • EAn IgM monoclonal gammopathy
Answer

D

Hairy cell leukemia is defined as much by absences as by findings: it involves marrow, blood, and spleen but is not associated with lymphadenopathy, and patients present with splenomegaly and pancytopenia including monocytopenia — a specific and unexpected cytopenia that makes A exactly wrong. The dry tap follows from the reticulin fibrosis, which is why diagnosis rests on core biopsy, and the marrow shows “fried egg” morphology. C contradicts the disease. B indicates mantle cell lymphoma and E indicates lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma. Essentially 100% of cases carry BRAF V600E, and treatment uses purine analogues such as cladribine.

126A 9-year-old boy in Kenya presents with a rapidly enlarging jaw mass. Biopsy shows sheets of intermediate-sized cells with interspersed pale macrophages containing apoptotic debris.Which cytogenetic abnormality is expected?

  • At(8;14); IGH::MYC
  • Bt(14;18); IGH::BCL2
  • Ct(11;14); IGH::CCND1
  • Dt(11;18); BIRC3::MALT1
  • Et(15;17); PML::RARA
Answer

A

The “starry sky” appearance and an African child with a jaw mass identify endemic Burkitt lymphoma, defined by t(8;14) placing MYC under IGH control. The morphology and the biology are the same fact: Burkitt has one of the highest proliferation rates of any human tumor, so cells die as fast as they divide and macrophages full of apoptotic debris appear as pale “stars” against the dark “sky” of tumor. The same kinetics make it rapidly fatal untreated, highly curable with intensive chemotherapy, and a very high risk for tumor lysis syndrome. The other translocations define follicular, mantle cell, gastric MALT, and acute promyelocytic leukemia.

127A clinician is asked to describe the three clinical settings in which Burkitt lymphoma occurs.Which pairing is correct?

  • AEndemic disease presents in adults with a mesenteric mass
  • BSporadic disease presents in African children with a jaw mass
  • CImmunodeficiency-related disease arises only after transplantation and is always EBV-negative
  • DEndemic disease presents in African children with a jaw mass and is EBV-positive
  • ESporadic disease occurs only in patients with HIV infection
Answer

D

The three flavors are endemic — Africa, children, jaw mass, EBV-positive; sporadic — adults, mesenteric mass, ± EBV; and immunodeficiency-related — HIV or post-transplant, ± EBV. A and B swap the endemic and sporadic descriptions, which is the most common error. C is wrong because immunodeficiency-related cases are ± EBV rather than uniformly negative. E is wrong because sporadic disease occurs in immunocompetent people, with HIV belonging to the separate immunodeficiency-related category. Note that EBV also drives post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorders.

128A 70-year-old man presents with a rapidly enlarging neck mass over six weeks. Biopsy shows sheets of large atypical B cells.Which statement about this lymphoma is correct?

  • AIt arises only de novo and never from a lower-grade process
  • BIt is indolent and requires only observation
  • CIt is incurable regardless of therapy
  • DIt is the most common lymphoma worldwide and is potentially curable
  • EIt is defined by the presence of a t(14;18) translocation
Answer

D

Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma is the most common lymphoma in the world and, like other high-grade lymphomas, is aggressive and fatal if untreated but potentially curable with intensive chemotherapy — roughly 70% remission and 40% cure, improved by the addition of rituximab, an anti-CD20 antibody. B and C invert the central prognostic principle, which is that aggressive lymphomas are curable and indolent ones are not, because chemotherapy kills dividing cells. A is wrong because DLBCL can arise by transformation from CLL/SLL or follicular lymphoma. E describes follicular lymphoma.

129Flow cytometry is performed on a lymph node suspension to determine whether a B-cell population is neoplastic.Which finding would best support a clonal process?

  • AA mixture of kappa- and lambda-expressing cells in roughly equal numbers
  • BRestriction of surface light chain expression to kappa only
  • CExpression of CD19 and CD20 by the majority of cells
  • DThe presence of numerous T cells alongside the B cells
  • EExpression of CD45 by all lymphoid cells
Answer

B

Neoplastic processes are monoclonal: a single cell produces an expansile clone with an identical antigen receptor rearrangement, independent of antigen stimulation. Because each B cell expresses either kappa or lambda but not both, a clone shows light chain restriction — the practical flow cytometry readout of clonality. A describes the opposite and indicates a polyclonal, reactive population responding to various antigens. C, D, and E describe normal B-cell, T-cell, and leukocyte markers that carry no information about clonality. Note the caveat that not all clonal processes are neoplastic, especially in T cells, and that T cells have no light chain equivalent.

130A student asks why low-grade lymphomas are incurable while high-grade lymphomas can be cured.Which explanation is correct?

  • AHigh-grade lymphomas are more likely to carry targetable translocations
  • BLow-grade lymphomas express drug efflux pumps that high-grade lymphomas lack
  • CHigh-grade lymphomas are detected at a much earlier clinical stage than low-grade lymphomas
  • DLow-grade lymphomas involve the marrow, which shields them from chemotherapy
  • ELow-grade lymphomas have a low proliferative rate, so most cells escape cytotoxic therapy
Answer

E

Cytotoxic chemotherapy kills dividing cells. An aggressive lymphoma is dividing furiously, so nearly the whole tumor is exposed at once and can be eradicated. An indolent lymphoma has a low proliferative rate, so at any moment most of the clone sits quietly out of reach — the tumor shrinks and then returns, and the patient lives a long time with the disease without being rid of it. C is factually backwards, since low-grade lymphomas such as follicular are typically widespread at diagnosis yet still indolent. B, D, and A propose mechanisms that are not the explanation. Mantle cell lymphoma is the worst of both — aggressive yet still too slow-growing to cure.

Lecture 12 · Torres

Plasma Cell Neoplasms

Questions 131–139

131A 75-year-old African American man presents with back pain, fatigue, and recurrent infections. Laboratory studies show a normocytic normochromic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and elevated creatinine and calcium.Which set of findings does this presentation represent?

  • AThe CRAB criteria of multiple myeloma
  • BThe diagnostic triad of Waldenström macroglobulinemia
  • CThe criteria for monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
  • DThe features of AL amyloidosis without myeloma
  • EThe presentation of a solitary plasmacytoma
Answer

A

CRAB stands for hyperCalcemia, Renal insufficiency, Anemia, and Bone lesions, and this patient has all four elements — the calcium and creatinine are elevated, the anemia is present, and the back pain reflects multifocal osteolytic lesions. Note the demographics, which fit: myeloma is male predominant at 1.5:1, twice as frequent in African Americans, and peaks at 65–70 years. B describes an IgM-associated hyperviscosity syndrome, a different disease. C is excluded because MGUS is asymptomatic by definition. D and E are related plasma cell disorders lacking this constellation.

132A 68-year-old asymptomatic woman is found to have an IgG monoclonal spike of 1.8 g/dL. Marrow shows 6% clonal plasma cells. Calcium, creatinine, hemoglobin, and skeletal survey are all normal.Which is the correct diagnosis?

  • AMonoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
  • BSmoldering myeloma requiring immediate therapy
  • CMultiple myeloma
  • DWaldenström macroglobulinemia
  • EAL amyloidosis
Answer

A

MGUS requires three conditions simultaneously: an M-spike under 3 g/dL, fewer than 10% monoclonal plasma cells in the marrow, and no symptoms — meaning no CRAB findings. This patient satisfies all three. MGUS is a pre-neoplastic condition and about 1% progress to plasma cell myeloma, so surveillance rather than treatment is appropriate, making B wrong. C is excluded by the absence of CRAB findings and the low plasma cell percentage. D would require an IgM spike. The discriminating step in any such vignette is to check for hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, anemia, and lytic lesions rather than react to the M-spike alone.

133A 73-year-old man has an M-spike identified on serum protein electrophoresis. The paraprotein is IgM, and he has hyperviscosity symptoms but no lytic bone lesions.Which diagnosis does the isotype favor?

  • AMultiple myeloma with an unusual IgM paraprotein secretion pattern
  • BHeavy chain disease
  • CLight chain only myeloma
  • DLymphoplasmacytic lymphoma / Waldenström macroglobulinemia
  • EMonoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
Answer

D

The isotype decides. Myeloma secretes IgG > IgA > light chain only; an IgM-secreting lymphoproliferative disorder is Waldenström macroglobulinemia, which is lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma. The clinical consequences follow the molecule: IgM is a large pentamer that raises serum viscosity and produces hyperviscosity syndrome treated with plasmapheresis, whereas myeloma produces lytic bone lesions and CRAB findings. The absence of lytic lesions here supports that split. C describes a myeloma variant with little or no serum spike. E is excluded by the presence of symptoms.

134A patient with multiple myeloma has a serum creatinine of 3.2 mg/dL. Urine electrophoresis demonstrates a monoclonal light chain.Which term describes the urinary protein, and what is the mechanism of renal injury?

  • ATamm-Horsfall protein; normal tubular protein is overproduced
  • BBence-Jones protein; whole immunoglobulin is filtered and obstructs glomeruli
  • CM-protein; immune complexes deposit along the basement membrane
  • DAmyloid; light chains form fibrils exclusively within glomeruli
  • EBence-Jones protein; light chains deposit in tubules causing injury
Answer

E

Immunoglobulin eliminated in the urine is the Bence-Jones protein, and in myeloma kidney the free light chains excreted by the kidney deposit in the tubules and lead to kidney injury. The reason light chains and not whole immunoglobulin do this is size: a free light chain is small enough to be filtered by the glomerulus, whereas intact IgG is not, so only the light chain reaches the tubule — making B mechanistically wrong. D describes AL amyloidosis, the other light-chain deposition disorder, in which free light chains deposit in tissues in the form of amyloid. C and E misidentify the protein.

135A 69-year-old woman with multiple myeloma has multiple well-circumscribed lucent lesions on skeletal survey. A radionuclide bone scan is reported as unremarkable.Which best explains the discrepancy?

  • AMyeloma lesions are osteoblastic and require different tracer
  • BBone scans cannot detect lesions of the axial skeleton
  • CThe lesions are too small to be resolved by conventional radionuclide imaging
  • DHypercalcemia suppresses radionuclide uptake by bone
  • EMyeloma lesions are purely lytic with little osteoblastic activity to detect
Answer

E

Myeloma cells release MIP1α, TNF, and IL-1β, which activate osteoclasts via RANK while osteoblast activity is suppressed, so bone is resorbed with no attempt at repair. A bone scan works by detecting osteoblastic activity, so lesions that provoke none are effectively invisible — which is why myeloma is imaged with a skeletal survey. A states the opposite of the biology. B, C, and D propose technical explanations that do not apply. The same unopposed resorption dumps calcium into the blood, producing the C of CRAB with its neurologic manifestations and kidney injury.

136A peripheral smear from a patient with a large M-spike shows red cells arranged in stacks resembling columns of coins.Which finding is described, and what causes it?

  • AAgglutination; an IgM autoantibody cross-links red cells
  • BSchistocytes; shearing within a fibrin mesh
  • CRouleaux; high paraprotein reduces the charge repulsion between red cells
  • DSpherocytes; partial membrane removal by macrophages within the splenic cords
  • ETarget cells; excess membrane relative to hemoglobin content
Answer

C

Rouleaux are red cells stacked like coins, formed when a high concentration of monoclonal protein reduces the charge repulsion that normally keeps cells apart — a characteristic peripheral blood finding in plasma cell myeloma. A is the deliberate contrast carried over from Lecture 03: agglutinates also look like red cells sticking together, but they are irregular clumps produced by an antigen–antibody reaction and point to cold agglutinin syndrome. The distinction matters because rouleaux reflect plasma composition while agglutination reflects an immune process. B, D, and E describe changes in individual cell shape rather than in how cells associate.

137A patient with multiple myeloma and a total serum protein of 11 g/dL suffers recurrent pneumococcal pneumonia.Which best explains this susceptibility?

  • AThe paraprotein directly inhibits neutrophil function
  • BThe monoclonal protein is functionally useless and normal antibody production is suppressed
  • CHypercalcemia impairs lymphocyte activation
  • DThe elevated total serum protein concentration reflects preserved and adequate humoral immunity
  • ERenal loss of immunoglobulin produces hypogammaglobulinemia
Answer

B

Myeloma produces an enormous quantity of immunoglobulin while leaving the patient immunodeficient, and the resolution is that the paraprotein is monoclonal — a single specificity directed at nothing useful — while the expanding clone suppresses normal plasma cells, so functional polyclonal antibody falls. Patients suffer infections due to immune deficiency, a listed clinical feature. This is the same pattern as hypogammaglobulinemia in CLL and functional neutropenia in AML: a high number of a useless product alongside a deficiency of the working version. D mistakes quantity for function, and A, C, and E propose mechanisms that are not the explanation.

138A 71-year-old woman with a monoclonal gammopathy develops nephrotic-range proteinuria, macroglossia, and restrictive cardiomyopathy. Congo red staining of a fat pad biopsy shows apple-green birefringence.Which process is responsible?

  • AFree light chains depositing in tissues as amyloid
  • BFree light chains obstructing renal tubules
  • CWhole immunoglobulin depositing along basement membranes
  • DOsteoclast activation mediated by RANK
  • EPlasma cell infiltration of the affected organs
Answer

A

AL amyloidosis occurs when free light chains circulate in serum and deposit in tissues in the form of amyloid, giving primary amyloidosis. The misfolded light chains form fibrils that accumulate systemically, which is why the presentation spans kidney, tongue, and heart rather than a single organ. B describes the other light chain deposition disorder, myeloma kidney, where the same free light chains deposit as casts in the tubules — the deliberate contrast, since one protein causes two different diseases depending on where and how it deposits. D is the mechanism of the lytic bone lesions, and C and E describe processes that are not responsible here.

139Which cytokine is described as promoting the expansion and survival of myeloma cells?Select the correct mediator.

  • AInterferon gamma
  • BInterleukin-6
  • CInterleukin-2
  • DTumor necrosis factor alpha
  • EGranulocyte colony-stimulating factor
Answer

B

IL-6 promotes expansion and survival of myeloma cells, and it sits alongside the other pathogenetic factors listed — exposure to toxins and radiation, chronic antigenic stimulation, and IGH gene rearrangement. D is a genuine participant but in a different role: TNF, along with MIP1α and IL-1β, is produced by the myeloma cells to activate osteoclasts via RANK, driving the bone disease rather than sustaining the clone. A, C, and E are cytokines with no described role in this disease. Keeping IL-6 attached to survival of the clone and the MIP1α/TNF/IL-1β group attached to bone destruction separates the two arms of the pathogenesis.

Lecture 13 · Howell

T-cell Lymphomas

Questions 140–150

140Flow cytometry on a lymph node shows a T-cell population that is CD2, CD3, CD5, and CD4 positive and TdT negative.What does the TdT result establish?

  • AThe cells are of B-cell rather than T-cell lineage
  • BThe cells are precursor thymic lymphoblasts
  • CThe result cannot be interpreted without CD1a staining
  • DThe cells are undergoing active receptor rearrangement
  • EThe cells are mature, post-thymic T cells
Answer

E

TdT is the enzyme that inserts random nucleotides during antigen receptor gene rearrangement, so it is expressed only while a lymphocyte is building its receptor — in marrow and thymus. Once the receptor is complete and the cell leaves for the periphery, TdT is switched off permanently, making it a timestamp: TdT-positive means precursor and therefore lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma, while TdT-negative means post-thymic and therefore one of the mature peripheral T-cell lymphomas. B and D describe the immature compartment, which would also express CD1a and cytoplasmic CD3 and be double positive or double negative for CD4/CD8. A is wrong because TdT marks both B- and T-lymphoblasts and says nothing about lineage.

141A pathologist notes that B-cell lymphomas are classified by stage of development while T-cell lymphomas are classified differently.On what basis are T-cell lymphomas classified?

  • AClinical presentation, as cutaneous, leukemic, extranodal, or nodal
  • BCell size, as small, intermediate, or large
  • CThe specific chromosomal translocation identified on karyotype or FISH
  • DSurface light chain restriction pattern
  • EDegree of TdT expression
Answer

A

T-cell lymphomas are classified according to clinical presentationcutaneous, disseminated/leukemic, extranodal, and nodal — because the usual classification tools fail. Morphology shows striking variability and extensive overlap; the immunophenotype offers no clear surface marker of clonality and usually no disease-specific phenotype; and only a few entities have a defining lesion, such as t(2;5) in anaplastic large cell lymphoma. D is the specific point of failure: light chain restriction is a B-cell tool with no T-cell equivalent, so clonality requires T-cell receptor gene rearrangement studies. B is the framework used for B-cell lymphomas.

142A 58-year-old man has a ten-year history of scaly patches progressing to plaques on the trunk. Biopsy shows small cerebriform lymphocytes infiltrating the epidermis singly and in small intraepidermal collections.Which immunophenotypic finding would best support the diagnosis?

  • ACD4 positive with retained CD7
  • BCD4 positive with loss of CD7
  • CCD8 positive with loss of CD4
  • DCD30 positive with ALK expression
  • ECD56 positive with EBV positivity
Answer

B

Mycosis fungoides arises from a mature CD4-positive epidermotropic T cell, and the neoplastic population is positive for CD2, CD3, CD5, CD4 and CLA while being negative for CD7, CD8 and ALK. The loss of CD7 is the diagnostic lever, because a normal mature T cell carries the full panel — an aberrant phenotype, meaning a population missing a marker it should have, is the closest thing T-cell pathology has to light chain restriction, making A wrong. The intraepidermal collections are Pautrier microabscesses, highly characteristic but present in a minority of cases. D describes anaplastic large cell lymphoma and E describes extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma.

143A 67-year-old man has diffuse erythroderma, generalized lymphadenopathy, and 3,200 circulating atypical lymphocytes per mL with cerebriform nuclei. Bone marrow examination is nearly normal.Which best explains the sparing of the bone marrow?

  • AThe cells express skin homing receptors and traffic between skin, blood, and nodes
  • BMarrow involvement occurs only in the terminal phase of all T-cell lymphomas
  • CThe tumor cells lack the adhesion molecules needed to enter marrow
  • DCirculating cells in this disease are reactive rather than neoplastic
  • EMarrow sampling error is typical in erythrodermic disease
Answer

A

This is Sézary syndrome, defined by the triad of erythroderma, lymphadenopathy, and circulating Sézary cells exceeding 1000 per mL. Despite being leukemic, the bone marrow is remarkably spared, with involvement described as sparse and usually interstitial. The explanation is the skin homing receptor CCR4 and cutaneous lymphocyte antigen, which program these cells to traffic skin to blood to lymph node — the blood is their transit route rather than their destination. That is why Sézary is grouped with the cutaneous lymphomas and why the triad describes three stops on one circuit. Flow typically shows a CD4/CD8 ratio above 10:1 with increased CD4+CD7− cells.

144A 49-year-old man from Japan presents with generalized lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, skin lesions, leukocytosis, and a calcium of 13.8 mg/dL. The smear shows lymphocytes with markedly polylobated nuclei.Which virus is implicated?

  • AEpstein-Barr virus
  • BHuman T-cell leukemia virus 1
  • CHuman herpesvirus 8
  • DHuman immunodeficiency virus
  • EHepatitis C virus
Answer

B

Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma is caused by HTLV-1, is endemic in Japan, the Caribbean, and Central Africa, has a median age of 47, and shows characteristic “flower cells” with polylobated nuclei. The hypercalcemia with or without lytic bone lesions is a feature of the acute variant and reflects the general T-cell mechanism of osteoclast activating factor. Note that HTLV-1 alone is not sufficient — additional genetic hits are needed after a long latency following infection very early in life via breast milk, sexual intercourse, or blood products. A drives extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma and Burkitt lymphoma, and B drives primary effusion lymphoma.

145A patient with adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma dies of Pneumocystis pneumonia and cryptococcal meningitis.Which feature of the neoplastic cell best explains this vulnerability?

  • AThe cells express CD25 and consume available interleukin-2
  • BThe cells secrete immunoglobulin that is functionally inactive
  • CThe cells infiltrate and destroy the bone marrow
  • DThe cells are derived from a CD4-positive regulatory T cell
  • EThe virus directly infects and lyses neutrophils
Answer

D

The cell of origin is a CD4-positive peripheral regulatory T cell, whose normal role is to suppress immune responses. Expanding that population enormously produces profound immunosuppression, which is why the listed causes of death are the same organisms seen in advanced HIV — Pneumocystis, cryptococcal meningitis, disseminated herpes zoster — alongside hypercalcemia, rather than complications of tumor bulk. A names a genuine marker, since CD25 is the IL-2 receptor alpha chain and a normal regulatory T-cell marker, but the immunosuppression follows from the regulatory function rather than from cytokine consumption. B describes a plasma cell neoplasm.

146A lymph node from a 12-year-old shows sheets of large bizarre cells, some with eccentric horseshoe-shaped nuclei and a prominent paranuclear eosinophilic Golgi zone. The cells are uniformly and strongly CD30 positive.Which genetic abnormality is most likely?

  • At(2;5)(p23;q35) producing an NPM-ALK fusion
  • Bt(8;14) producing an IGH::MYC fusion
  • Ct(14;18) producing an IGH::BCL2 fusion
  • Dt(11;14) producing an IGH::CCND1 fusion
  • Et(15;17) producing a PML::RARA fusion
Answer

A

The cells described are hallmark cellslarge cells with eccentric horseshoe- or kidney-shaped nuclei and a prominent paranuclear eosinophilic Golgi region — and with strong uniform CD30 in a child they identify ALK-positive anaplastic large cell lymphoma. 75–80% of cases carry t(2;5)(p23;q35), joining the nucleophosmin gene at 5q35 to the ALK gene at 2p23. The ALK staining pattern reports the genetics: cytoplasmic and nuclear staining indicates t(2;5), because nucleophosmin normally shuttles to the nucleus and carries the fusion protein with it. The remaining options are B-cell and myeloid translocations.

147A 14-year-old with ALK-positive anaplastic large cell lymphoma is being counseled about prognosis.Which statement is accurate?

  • APrognosis depends entirely on the presence of B symptoms
  • BIt has a five-year survival under 20%, typical of T-cell lymphomas
  • CIt is incurable but indolent, with survival measured in decades
  • DPrognosis is identical to peripheral T-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified
  • EIt has a five-year survival of 80–90%, unusually good for a T-cell lymphoma
Answer

E

ALK-positive ALCL has a five-year survival of 80–90%, which stands out sharply against the general rule that T-cell lymphomas are aggressive with poorer survival — worse than B-cell lymphoma and Hodgkin lymphoma. It is explicitly one of the exceptions to that rule, which is what makes it examinable. It represents 3% of all non-Hodgkin lymphoma but 10–30% of childhood lymphomas, occurs in the first three decades with a 3:1 male predominance, and presents with advanced disease in 70% and B symptoms — so a good outcome despite advanced stage is exactly the point. B and D apply the general T-cell rule without recognizing the exception.

148A 44-year-old man of East Asian descent has a destructive ulcerating mass of the nasal cavity and hard palate. Biopsy shows extensive necrosis with atypical lymphoid cells invading vessel walls.Which combination of findings is expected?

  • ACD56 positive, EBV positive, cytotoxic granule proteins positive
  • BCD30 positive, ALK positive, EBV negative
  • CCD4 positive, CD7 negative, CLA positive
  • DCD4 positive, CD25 positive, HTLV-1 integrated
  • ETdT positive, CD1a positive, cytoplasmic CD3 positive, CD4/CD8 double negative
Answer

A

Extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma, nasal type involves the upper aerodigestive tract, is angiodestructive with necrosis and vascular destruction, and occurs in Asians and indigenous populations of Mexico, Central and South America. It is EBV-positive, and the majority are of NK-cell lineage (66–75%) expressing CD2, cytoplasmic CD3, CD56, and cytotoxic markers TIA-1, granzyme B, and perforin. Those cytotoxic proteins are working weapons rather than mere markers, which is why the tumor destroys vessels and produces the classic destructive midline facial lesion. B describes ALCL, C mycosis fungoides, D adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma, and E a precursor T-lymphoblastic process.

149Molecular studies are ordered to establish clonality in a suspected T-cell lymphoma.Which test is appropriate?

  • ASurface light chain restriction by flow cytometry
  • BImmunoglobulin heavy chain gene rearrangement
  • CKaryotype analysis for a complex karyotype
  • DJAK2 V617F mutation analysis
  • ET-cell receptor gene rearrangement
Answer

E

T-cell receptor gene rearrangement studies establish clonality in T-cell neoplasms, because there is no clear surface marker of clonality for T cells — A is precisely the tool that does not exist on the T side, since light chain restriction is a B-cell readout, and B is the corresponding B-cell molecular test. D belongs to the myeloproliferative neoplasms. C is unhelpful because complex karyotypes occur in mycosis fungoides and Sézary syndrome with no specific changes, so they cannot define a disease. Note the important caveat that a clonal T-cell population is not necessarily neoplastic.

150A dermatopathologist finds a clonal T-cell receptor gene rearrangement in a skin biopsy from a patient with a chronic inflammatory dermatosis.How should this result be interpreted?

  • AIt establishes a diagnosis of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma
  • BIt excludes a reactive process
  • CIt indicates that the process will inevitably progress to lymphoma
  • DIt must be interpreted alongside morphology and clinical context
  • EIt is a technical artifact and should be disregarded
Answer

D

The governing principle is that while all neoplasms are clonal, not all clonal processes are neoplastic — especially in T cells. A vigorous reactive T-cell response can generate a detectable clone without being a lymphoma, so a rearrangement result is supporting evidence rather than proof and must be read alongside morphology and clinical presentation. This is one concrete reason the entire family is classified by clinical presentation rather than by laboratory markers. A, B, and C all treat the finding as diagnostic, which overstates it, and E dismisses a genuine result. Note that mycosis fungoides is notoriously difficult to separate from chronic dermatitis for exactly this reason.

Lecture 14 · Bhagavathi

Hodgkin Lymphoma

Questions 151–159

151A lymph node biopsy from a 30-year-old with painless cervical lymphadenopathy shows scattered large binucleate cells within an abundant background of lymphocytes, macrophages, eosinophils, and plasma cells.Which immunophenotype is expected in the large cells?

  • ACD30 positive, CD15 negative, PAX5 negative, CD20 positive
  • BCD30 negative, CD15 negative, PAX5 positive, CD20 positive
  • CCD30 positive, CD15 positive, PAX5 positive, CD20 negative
  • DCD30 negative, CD15 positive, PAX5 negative, CD20 negative
  • ECD30 positive, CD15 positive, PAX5 negative, CD20 positive
Answer

C

The large binucleate cells are Reed-Sternberg cells, and classical Hodgkin lymphoma is PAX5 positive, CD30 positive, CD15 positive, and CD20 negative. The pattern encodes real biology: the RS cell arises from a germinal center B cell but has lost its B-cell program, which is why CD20 is negative and why the cell looks so morphologically strange. The one B-cell marker that survives is PAX5, a B-cell transcription factor emphasized as the marker “that's not lost,” and it is used to prove B-cell origin. B is the NLPHL panel, which is essentially the opposite. The abundant inflammatory background constitutes 90% of the tumor cellularity.

152A 26-year-old man has an isolated enlarged cervical node. Biopsy shows nodules containing scattered large cells with multilobated nuclei resembling popcorn, in a background of follicular dendritic cells and reactive B cells.Which is the most likely diagnosis?

  • AClassical Hodgkin lymphoma, nodular sclerosis type
  • BClassical Hodgkin lymphoma, mixed cellularity type
  • CNodular lymphocyte-predominant Hodgkin lymphoma
  • DFollicular lymphoma, grade 1
  • EDiffuse large B-cell lymphoma
Answer

C

NLPHL is uncommon and typically presents in a young male with cervical or axillary lymphadenopathy, with frequent L&H or “popcorn” cell variants in a background of follicular dendritic cells and reactive B cells. Its phenotype is the mirror image of classical disease: PAX5 positive, CD20 positive, OCT2 positive, CD30 negative, CD15 negative — it has retained the B-cell program that classical HL loses. A and B are classical subtypes defined by Reed-Sternberg cells rather than popcorn cells. Note that NLPHL may evolve to T-cell/histiocyte-rich large B-cell lymphoma.

153A clinician is asked how Hodgkin lymphoma differs from non-Hodgkin lymphoma in its behavior.Which statement is correct?

  • AIt typically presents with widespread noncontiguous lymphadenopathy at diagnosis
  • BIt is distinguished by the absence of an inflammatory infiltrate
  • CIt rarely involves lymph nodes and presents at extranodal sites
  • DIt is defined by a characteristic chromosomal translocation
  • EIt arises in a single node or chain and spreads to contiguous lymphoid tissue
Answer

E

Hodgkin lymphoma arises in a single node or chain of nodes and spreads first to anatomically contiguous lymphoid tissue, so it mimics a carcinoma rather than producing the generalized lymphadenopathy of non-Hodgkin lymphoma — making A the intended contrast. That predictable behavior has a practical consequence: because the extent of disease could be mapped and encompassed in a radiation field, Hodgkin lymphoma became the first cancer successfully treated with radiation and chemotherapy, and stage rather than histologic subtype is now the dominant prognostic variable. D is wrong because HL is defined by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, and B inverts the characteristic morphology.

154A student asks why the neoplastic cells make up only a small fraction of a Hodgkin lymphoma mass.Which explanation is correct?

  • AThe neoplastic cells are destroyed by the host immune response as fast as they arise
  • BThe neoplastic cells secrete cytokines and chemokines that attract inflammatory cells
  • CThe inflammatory cells are themselves part of the neoplastic clone
  • DSampling artifact causes the neoplastic cells to be underrepresented
  • EThe neoplastic cells divide slowly compared with reactive lymphocytes
Answer

B

The defining morphologic feature is rare neoplastic cells in an abundant inflammatory background of lymphocytes, macrophages and granulocytes that constitutes 90% of the tumor cellularity, and the mechanism is that the transformed B cells secrete cytokines, chemokines and other factors that attract inflammatory cells. The upstream driver is activation of the transcription factor NF-κB, by several mechanisms including EBV infection — the same signal that keeps the crippled germinal center cell alive also makes it pour out chemokines. This explains why B symptoms are cytokine-driven and why identification of RS cells and variants is crucial for diagnosis. C is wrong because the background is reactive, not clonal.

155A pathologist reviews the distribution of classical Hodgkin lymphoma subtypes.Which subtype accounts for approximately 70% of cases?

  • AMixed cellularity
  • BLymphocyte-rich
  • CLymphocyte-depleted
  • DNodular lymphocyte-predominant
  • ENodular sclerosis
Answer

E

Nodular sclerosis accounts for 70% of Hodgkin lymphoma cases, making it by far the most common subtype. The four classical subtypes are nodular sclerosis, mixed cellularity, lymphocyte-rich, and lymphocyte-depleted, with the latter two described as uncommon. D is not a classical subtype at all — nodular lymphocyte-predominant Hodgkin lymphoma is classified separately and has a different immunophenotype and behavior. Clinically, nodular sclerosis and lymphocyte predominance usually present at stage I–II free of systemic symptoms, whereas mixed cellularity and lymphocyte-depleted more often present with disseminated disease and B symptoms.

156Two patients with Hodgkin lymphoma are compared: one has nodular sclerosis at stage IIA, the other has mixed cellularity at stage IIA.Which factor most influences prognosis with current treatment protocols?

  • AThe tumor stage
  • BThe histologic subtype
  • CThe presence of Reed-Sternberg variants
  • DThe CD15 staining intensity
  • EThe patient's sex
Answer

A

With current treatment protocols, tumor stage rather than histologic type is the important prognostic variable. This represents a genuine historical shift — subtype once mattered a great deal, but effective combined-modality therapy has largely erased those differences, which is why B is the trap. The stage-based figures are worth carrying: cure rate for stage I and stage IIA is 90%, and even in advanced disease at stage IVA or IVB, 60–70% five-year disease-free survival is common. Subtype still correlates with how patients present — nodular sclerosis and lymphocyte predominance at low stage without symptoms — but that is a matter of presentation rather than independent prognostic weight.

157A 47-year-old woman treated 15 years ago for Hodgkin lymphoma with alkylating chemotherapy and mantle radiotherapy now presents with pancytopenia. Marrow examination shows 28% blasts and a complex karyotype.Which best explains this development?

  • ARelapsed Hodgkin lymphoma with marrow involvement
  • BAn aplastic anemia caused by late radiation effects
  • CA myelodysplastic neoplasm unrelated to prior therapy
  • DTransformation of Hodgkin lymphoma to a T-cell lymphoma
  • ETherapy-related acute myeloid leukemia
Answer

E

Long-term survivors of Hodgkin lymphoma treated with alkylating chemotherapy and radiotherapy have an increased risk of developing a secondary malignancy, and the marrow findings here — ≥20% blasts with a complex karyotype — identify therapy-related AML. This connects directly to Lecture 08, where alkylating agents and topoisomerase inhibitors are named as the culprits and secondary AML is described as showing a complex karyotype with a very poor prognosis. The underlying principle is that the marrow stem cells were mutagenized by the curative therapy. C is contradicted by the blast count, which defines AML rather than MDS, and A and D are not supported by a myeloid blast population.

158A 34-year-old man with Hodgkin lymphoma reports fevers, drenching night sweats, and a 12 kg weight loss.Which pattern of disease is most consistent with these symptoms?

  • AMixed cellularity at stage III or IV
  • BLymphocyte predominance at stage II
  • CNodular sclerosis at stage I
  • DAny subtype at stage I
  • ENodular lymphocyte-predominant disease at stage I
Answer

A

B symptomsfever, night sweats, and weight loss — are most characteristic of patients with disseminated disease at stage III–IV and of the mixed cellularity and lymphocyte-depleted types. By contrast, nodular sclerosis and lymphocyte predominance usually present at clinical stage I–II and are free of systemic symptoms, which excludes C, B, D, and E. The mechanism ties back to the pathogenesis: the cytokines and chemokines secreted by the transformed B cells that recruit the inflammatory background are also what produce the constitutional symptoms, so B symptoms track cytokine output and disease burden rather than tumor mass alone.

159A clinician summarizes the epidemiology of Hodgkin lymphoma.Which statement is accurate?

  • AIt occurs almost exclusively in immunosuppressed patients
  • BIt is a disease of the elderly with a median age above 70
  • CIt accounts for approximately 30% of all new cancers
  • DIt is uniformly fatal without stem cell transplantation
  • EIt has an average age of onset of 32 and is curable in most cases
Answer

E

Hodgkin lymphoma has an average age of 32, making it one of the most common lymphomas of young adults, and it is curable in most cases — it was the first cancer to be successfully treated with radiation and chemotherapy. It accounts for 0.7% of all new cancers in the United States with about 8,000 new cases each year, so C overstates its frequency by a wide margin. B misstates the age distribution. D contradicts the cure rates of 90% in stage I–IIA and 60–70% five-year disease-free survival even in stage IV. A is wrong, although EBV is one mechanism of NF-κB activation in pathogenesis.

Lecture 15 · Torres

Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis

Questions 160–166

160A bone lesion biopsy shows large cells with grooved and folded nuclei and abundant pink, finely granular cytoplasm.Which immunophenotype would confirm the diagnosis?

  • AS100 positive, CD1a positive, langerin positive
  • BCD30 positive, ALK positive, EBV negative
  • CCD15 positive, CD30 positive, PAX5 positive
  • DCD56 positive, granzyme B positive, EBV positive
  • ECD19 positive, CD10 positive, TdT positive
Answer

A

Langerhans cell histiocytosis is a clonal neoplastic process of Langerhans-type cells, and the defining phenotype is S100 positive, CD1a positive, and CD207 (langerin) positive, with CD4 also expressed. The described morphology — large cells with grooved and folded nuclei and abundant pink, finely granular cytoplasm — is the light microscopic counterpart. Langerhans cells are dendritic cells of the innate immune system that derive from myeloid stem cells via common dendritic cell progenitors and process antigens for presentation to T cells. B describes anaplastic large cell lymphoma, C classical Hodgkin lymphoma, D extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma, and E B-lymphoblastic leukemia.

161Electron microscopy of a lesional cell demonstrates racket-shaped pentalaminar cytoplasmic structures.What are these structures, and what do they contain?

  • ADense granules, containing ADP and calcium
  • BAuer rods, containing myeloperoxidase
  • CWeibel-Palade bodies, containing von Willebrand factor
  • DBirbeck granules, containing langerin
  • EPrimary granules, containing procoagulants
Answer

D

Birbeck granules are racket-shaped pentalaminar structures identifiable only by electron microscopy, and they contain langerin. They are pathognomonic for the Langerhans lineage because they are the physical footprint of a protein only these cells express: langerin binds carbohydrate and is endocytosed, and its structure forces the internalized membrane into a rigid five-layered rod with a vesicular dilation at one end — a rod plus a bulb, hence the tennis racket description. B is the aggregated myeloperoxidase of myeloid blasts, C stores vWF in endothelium and is the depot released by DDAVP, and E describes the promyelocyte granules that cause DIC in APL.

162Molecular testing is performed on a case of Langerhans cell histiocytosis.Which mutation is most frequently identified?

  • ANPM1 mutation
  • BMYD88 L265P
  • CJAK2 V617F
  • DKIT D816V
  • EBRAF p.V600E
Answer

E

BRAF p.V600E is the most frequent genetic abnormality in LCH, present in 55–60% of cases. It is an activating valine-to-glutamate substitution at residue 600 and is conveniently detectable by immunohistochemical stain, so it does not require sequencing. Less frequent mutations include TP53, RAS, and MET. The same BRAF V600E is found in essentially 100% of hairy cell leukemia, which is worth pairing since both are treatable with BRAF inhibitors. B belongs to lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma, C to the myeloproliferative neoplasms, D to systemic mastocytosis, and A to a favorable-risk subset of AML.

163An 18-month-old presents with a seborrheic-appearing skin eruption, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, multiple lytic bone lesions, and pancytopenia.Which form of Langerhans cell histiocytosis is this?

  • AMultifocal multisystem LCH, formerly Letterer-Siwe disease
  • BMultifocal unisystem LCH
  • CUnifocal eosinophilic granuloma involving the skeletal system
  • DPulmonary Langerhans cell histiocytosis
  • EHand-Schüller-Christian disease
Answer

A

Multifocal multisystem LCH, formerly Letterer-Siwe disease, is a malignant proliferation with an aggressive course affecting children younger than 2. It involves the skin resembling a seborrheic eruption, with hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, lung and osteolytic bone lesions, and bone marrow failure — which accounts for the pancytopenia. It is rapidly fatal if untreated, with 50% five-year survival after chemotherapy, making it the form with the worst prognosis. C and B are the benign, indolent forms grouped as eosinophilic granuloma. D occurs in adult smokers. E names the triad seen in multifocal unisystem disease rather than this multisystem presentation.

164A 6-year-old with multiple erosive skull lesions develops polyuria and polydipsia. Serum sodium is elevated and urine is inappropriately dilute.Which best explains the endocrine finding?

  • AHypercalcemia from bone destruction causing nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
  • BMarrow failure with secondary adrenal insufficiency
  • CAnterior pituitary destruction causing panhypopituitarism
  • DInvolvement of the posterior pituitary and hypothalamus causing diabetes insipidus
  • ERenal tubular injury from light chain deposition
Answer

D

In multifocal unisystem LCH, lesions sometimes involve the posterior pituitary and hypothalamus, causing diabetes insipidus in 50% of cases. The anatomy explains it: LCH has a marked predilection for the calvarium and skull base, and a lesion eroding through the sella reaches the structures that make and release ADH. This is central rather than nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, which is why A is wrong. The same anatomic logic produces the Hand-Schüller-Christian triadcalvarial bone lesions, diabetes insipidus, and exophthalmos — where the exophthalmos comes from an orbital lesion pushing the globe forward. E belongs to plasma cell myeloma.

165A 38-year-old woman who smokes one pack daily has bilateral upper-zone pulmonary nodules and cysts. Biopsy shows CD1a-positive cells with grooved nuclei.Which is the most appropriate initial management?

  • AImmediate multi-agent chemotherapy
  • BSmoking cessation
  • CAllogeneic stem cell transplantation
  • DSystemic corticosteroids for life
  • ESurgical resection of all involved lung
Answer

B

Pulmonary LCH is most often seen in adult smokers and regresses spontaneously upon smoking cessation, which makes cessation the correct first intervention and one of the few instances in oncology where removing an exposure treats an established clonal lesion. About 40% of pulmonary cases carry a BRAF mutation, somewhat lower than the 55–60% seen overall. A and C would be appropriate for multifocal multisystem disease (Letterer-Siwe), which is aggressive and rapidly fatal untreated. D and E are disproportionate to a condition with a strong tendency toward spontaneous regression once the stimulus is removed.

166A 22-year-old man has an isolated painful lytic lesion of the femur. Biopsy shows sheets of Langerhans cells admixed with numerous eosinophils.Which statement about this lesion is correct?

  • AIt is associated with diabetes insipidus in most cases
  • BIt carries a 50% five-year survival even with chemotherapy
  • CIt is indolent and may spontaneously regress
  • DIt requires urgent multi-agent chemotherapy
  • EIt typically arises in children younger than 2 years
Answer

C

This is unifocal LCH, also called eosinophilic granuloma — a benign and indolent proliferation of LCH cells admixed with inflammatory cells, predominantly eosinophils, which is where the name comes from. It commonly involves bones such as the calvarium, ribs and femur, occurs more frequently in the skeletal system of older children and young adults, may be asymptomatic or cause bone pain or pathologic fracture, and can spontaneously regress. B and E describe multifocal multisystem disease (Letterer-Siwe), which affects children under 2 and is aggressive. A applies to multifocal lesions in young children, where posterior pituitary involvement causes diabetes insipidus in 50%.

Lecture 16 · Howell

Spleen

Questions 167–174

167A pathologist examines a normal spleen and identifies the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath surrounding a central artery.Which cells predominate in this compartment?

  • AMacrophages
  • BT lymphocytes
  • CB lymphocytes
  • DPlasma cells
  • EErythroid precursors
Answer

B

The white pulp is the immune compartment, and it is organized into two parts: the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS) contains T cells, while the lymphoid follicles contain B cells. Together they carry out immune reaction and antibody production, functioning much like a lymph node. A describes the splenic cords of Billroth in the red pulp, the filtration compartment. This anatomy has a direct clinical payoff carried over from Lecture 07: the splenomegaly of infectious mononucleosis is hypertrophy of the PALS, which makes sense because the disease is driven by a massive reactive CD8-positive T-cell response.

168A student asks how the spleen removes abnormal red cells from the circulation.Which mechanism is responsible?

  • AAntibody-mediated opsonization within the white pulp follicles
  • BComplement fixation on the sinusoidal endothelium
  • CEnzymatic digestion of aged membranes within the central artery
  • DDirect lysis of aged cells by splenic natural killer cells
  • EBlood leaving capillaries into the cords, then squeezing into sinusoids
Answer

E

Filtration is accomplished through the “open” circulation: blood leaves the capillaries, passes through the cords of Billroth, and enters the venous sinusoids. The mechanism is purely mechanical — to re-enter the sinusoids a red cell must squeeze between endothelial cells through slits narrower than itself, so a deformable cell passes while a rigid one is stranded among the cord macrophages. This single fact underlies the removal of aged red cells, red cell inclusions, and cells with membrane abnormalities, and it explains why hereditary spherocytosis is a splenic hemolysis, why Howell-Jolly bodies appear after splenectomy, and why bite cells form in G6PD deficiency.

169A patient with cirrhosis has a spleen measuring 22 cm and a platelet count of 68 ×10³/µL. Marrow examination is normal and no antiplatelet antibody is detected.Which best explains the thrombocytopenia?

  • AImmune destruction by an undetected autoantibody
  • BDecreased thrombopoietin production by the cirrhotic liver alone
  • CSplenic sequestration of a large fraction of the platelet mass
  • DConsumption within microvascular thrombi
  • EMarrow suppression from portal hypertension
Answer

C

Normally one third of the platelet mass is in the spleen; with splenomegaly, 80–90% of platelets may be sequestered. The platelets are not destroyed, they are pooled — which is why the marrow is normal, no antibody is found, and the count corrects after splenectomy. This is hypersplenism, a mechanism of cytopenia distinct from destruction and underproduction, and it is why the correct first question about any low platelet count is why it is low. A describes ITP, which would show an increased marrow megakaryocyte population, and D describes DIC or TTP, which would show schistocytes. B contributes in cirrhosis but does not account for the splenic findings.

170A 58-year-old man with cirrhosis has splenomegaly. The spleen shows an expanded, beefy red pulp with loss of white pulp and fibrosis of vessels and sinusoids.Which mechanism produced these changes?

  • AInfiltration by a low-grade lymphoma
  • BExtramedullary hematopoiesis replacing normal parenchyma
  • CObstruction of venous outflow with red pulp congestion
  • DStorage material accumulating within cord macrophages
  • ERepeated infarction with fibrous replacement
Answer

C

Congestive splenomegaly results from obstruction of venous outflow, producing red pulp congestion, and the described morphology is exactly that — red pulp expanded and beefy red with loss of white pulp, and fibrosis of vessels and sinusoids when long-standing. The causes are cirrhosis of the liver, portal or splenic vein thrombosis, and cardiac failure, all of which impede outflow. B occurs in myeloproliferative neoplasms and chronic anemia, A in lymphoma, and D in storage diseases such as Gaucher and the mucopolysaccharidoses — all genuine causes of splenomegaly, but none produces this specific congestive picture in a cirrhotic patient.

171A 19-year-old college student with infectious mononucleosis is counseled to avoid contact sports for several weeks.What is the rationale for this advice?

  • AExercise accelerates viral replication within lymphoid tissue
  • BThe spleen has enlarged rapidly, predisposing it to rupture
  • CPhysical activity precipitates airway obstruction from tonsillar swelling
  • DExertion worsens the associated hemolytic anemia
  • EContact sport increases the risk of transmitting the virus
Answer

B

Trauma is the most common cause of splenic rupture, and “spontaneous rupture” occurs where a predisposing condition has caused rapid splenic enlargement — the listed examples being infectious mononucleosis, malaria, typhoid fever, and lymphoid neoplasms. The reason rapidity matters is that the capsule is stretched thin without time to remodel, and the enlarged organ descends below the costal margin where the ribs no longer shield it. By contrast, a slowly enlarging spleen develops a thickened, fibrotic capsule and may be far less fragile despite being much larger. A, C, D, and E are not the basis of the recommendation.

172A 24-year-old with sickle cell disease has acute left upper quadrant pain. Imaging shows a wedge-shaped peripheral hypodensity in the spleen.Which process does this represent?

  • ASplenic abscess
  • BSplenic infarct from vascular occlusion
  • CSubcapsular hematoma from occult trauma
  • DA littoral cell angioma
  • EFocal extramedullary hematopoiesis
Answer

B

A wedge-shaped pale infarct is the classic morphology of splenic infarction, defined as an ischemic insult to the splenic parenchyma due to vascular occlusion. The listed causes are arterial thromboembolism, disruption of blood supply, sickle cell anemia, myeloproliferative neoplasms with extensive extramedullary hematopoiesis, vasculitis, and hypercoagulable states — and this patient has one of them. The wedge shape reflects the territory of an occluded end artery, which is why it is peripheral and based on the capsule. Repeated infarction in sickle cell disease is what ultimately produces autosplenectomy and the appearance of Howell-Jolly bodies. D is a rare vascular neoplasm rather than an ischemic lesion.

173A splenectomy specimen from a patient with isolated splenomegaly and no lymphadenopathy shows a lymphoid infiltrate.Which lymphoma most commonly arises primarily in the spleen?

  • ASplenic marginal zone lymphoma
  • BFollicular lymphoma
  • CMantle cell lymphoma
  • DBurkitt lymphoma
  • EClassical Hodgkin lymphoma
Answer

A

Among splenic lymphomas, the primary entity is splenic marginal zone lymphoma, while secondary involvement by lymphoma arising elsewhere is more common overall. Marginal zone lymphoma has nodal, splenic, and extranodal varieties, the extranodal form being MALT lymphoma. Note that another lymphoid neoplasm centred on the spleen is hairy cell leukemia, which involves the red pulp with blood lakes and characteristically presents with splenomegaly, pancytopenia and monocytopenia without lymphadenopathy. B, C, D, and E all involve the spleen but characteristically present with lymphadenopathy and are not primary splenic diseases.

174A clinician lists the functions of the spleen for a teaching session.Which function explains the vulnerability of asplenic patients to specific pathogens?

  • ASequestration of one third of the platelet mass
  • BExtramedullary hematopoiesis in chronic anemia
  • CAntibody production within the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath
  • DPhagocytosis providing defense against encapsulated bacteria
  • ERemoval of aged red cells from the circulation
Answer

D

The four splenic functions are antibody production, phagocytosis of blood cells and particulate matter — including defense against encapsulated bacteria, hematopoiesis in fetal life and as extramedullary hematopoiesis later, and sequestration of blood elements. It is specifically the phagocytic defense against encapsulated organisms that is lost after splenectomy or autosplenectomy, which is why those patients are at risk from pneumococcus and Haemophilus influenzae and why vaccination is required. A, B, C, and E are all genuine splenic functions, but none accounts for the specific organism susceptibility.

Lecture 17 · Randall

Thymus

Questions 175–182

175A neonate has hypocalcemic tetany, a conotruncal cardiac defect, and markedly decreased circulating T cells. Imaging shows an absent thymic shadow.Which genetic abnormality is expected?

  • A11q23 rearrangement
  • B5q deletion
  • CTrisomy 21
  • D22q11 deletion
  • E22q11 duplication
Answer

D

This is DiGeorge syndrome, caused by a 22q11 deletion and characterized by thymic and parathyroid aplasia or severe hypoplasia with markedly decreased T cells, variable defects involving the heart and great vessels, and defects in cell-mediated immunity. The findings track the embryology: the thymus arises from the 3rd branchial pouch, and the parathyroids and cardiac outflow tract derive from adjacent structures, so one developmental field failure produces immunodeficiency, hypocalcemia, and a cardiac defect together. DiGeorge is the aplasia end of the spectrum; dysplasia occurs in SCID, ataxia-telangiectasia, and incomplete DiGeorge. B belongs to MDS and A to KMT2A-rearranged leukemias.

176A small, lymphocyte-depleted thymus is examined. The pathologist must decide between thymic dysplasia and acute thymic involution.Which feature best distinguishes them?

  • AThe overall weight of the gland
  • BThe number of B-cell follicles present
  • CThe ratio of CD4 to CD8 thymocytes
  • DThe presence of fatty replacement
  • EThe presence of well-formed Hassall corpuscles
Answer

E

Dysplasia or aplasia is distinguished from acute thymic involution by the absence of well-formed Hassall corpuscles. The reasoning is developmental: in acute involution from stress or infection the organ developed normally and then shrank, so the medullary architecture was built and Hassall corpuscles remain. In dysplasia or aplasia the organ never formed properly, so there are no cortical and medullary zones and no Hassall corpuscles. That one structure separates a reversible stress response from a primary immunodeficiency. A fails because both are small. D describes normal age-related involution after puberty. B relates to a different entity entirely.

177A 34-year-old woman with fatigable ptosis and diplopia undergoes thymectomy. The gland contains secondary B-cell follicles with germinal centers.Which condition is most associated with this finding?

  • ADiGeorge syndrome
  • BMyasthenia gravis
  • CSevere combined immunodeficiency
  • DThymic carcinoma
  • ETrue thymic hyperplasia
Answer

B

Thymic follicular hyperplasia is defined by the presence of secondary B-cell follicles with germinal center formation and is seen in 65% of myasthenia gravis patients, as well as in systemic lupus erythematosus, Graves disease, and rheumatoid arthritis. The finding is abnormal because the thymus is a T-cell organ with a cortex and medulla, not follicles — germinal centers are structures of a B-cell response, and their presence means autoantibody is being generated inside the organ responsible for enforcing self-tolerance. E is the deliberate contrast: true thymic hyperplasia is enlargement beyond normal weight for age with normal microscopy. A and C produce hypoplastic glands without follicles.

178A pathologist distinguishes true thymic hyperplasia from thymic follicular hyperplasia.Which statement is correct?

  • ATrue thymic hyperplasia is defined by germinal center formation on routine microscopy
  • BFollicular hyperplasia is defined by increased gland weight alone
  • CTrue thymic hyperplasia is enlargement beyond normal weight with normal microscopy
  • DBoth are defined by the presence of Hassall corpuscles
  • EFollicular hyperplasia is never seen in children
Answer

C

True thymic hyperplasia is enlargement beyond the upper limits of normal weight for age, with normal microscopy, possibly reflecting failed involution. Thymic follicular hyperplasia, by contrast, is defined by microscopic architecture — secondary B-cell follicles with germinal center formation — rather than by weight, so A and C swap the two definitions. E is wrong because a few follicles are normal in children, which matters practically: the finding is significant only when follicles are numerous or occur in an adult. D is wrong because Hassall corpuscles are a normal medullary structure and do not define either form of hyperplasia.

179An anterior mediastinal mass is resected from a 15-year-old boy. It consists of sheets of immature lymphoid cells that are TdT positive, CD1a positive, and CD7 positive.Which is the most likely diagnosis?

  • AThymoma
  • BThymic carcinoma
  • CPrimary mediastinal large B-cell lymphoma
  • DT-lymphoblastic lymphoma
  • EMediastinal teratoma
Answer

D

TdT and CD1a positivity identify a precursor T cell, and in an adolescent with an anterior mediastinal mass this is T-lymphoblastic lymphoma — the Teenagers with a Thymic mass pattern from Lecture 08. The reason it arises here is anatomic: the thymic cortex normally contains immature thymocytes that are TdT positive, CD1a positive, and double positive or negative for CD4/CD8, so the neoplasm appears where its normal counterpart lives. A and B arise from thymic epithelial cells rather than lymphoid cells. C and E are also anterior mediastinal masses, which is why they are listed, but neither would show this precursor T-cell phenotype.

180A 52-year-old man with a thymic mass is evaluated.Which presentation accounts for approximately 40% of thymomas?

  • ADiscovery during evaluation of recurrent infection
  • BPresentation with pure red cell aplasia
  • CDiscovery during evaluation of hypercalcemia
  • DPresentation with superior vena cava obstruction alone
  • EDiscovery during evaluation of myasthenia gravis
Answer

E

Thymoma presentation splits three ways: 40% with symptoms related to impingement on mediastinal structures, 40% during evaluation of myasthenia gravis, and 20% incidental. So both the impingement group and the myasthenia group are 40%, and among the options given only the myasthenia route is stated correctly — D names a single specific impingement syndrome rather than the category. B is a genuine association, since patients may present with other autoimmune disorders or pure red cell aplasia, but it is not one of the three main routes. Roughly 40% of patients with thymoma have myasthenia gravis, which is the reciprocal of this statistic.

181A thymic epithelial tumor is diagnosed as squamous cell carcinoma of the thymus.Which statement is correct?

  • AIt is associated with myasthenia gravis in about 40% of cases
  • BIt represents the majority of thymic epithelial neoplasms
  • CIt has a five-year survival exceeding 90%
  • DIt is not associated with myasthenia gravis or autoimmune conditions
  • EIt is best classified as a minimally invasive thymoma
Answer

D

Thymic carcinoma is not associated with myasthenia gravis or autoimmune conditions, which breaks the reflex link between the thymus and myasthenia that holds for thymoma. The difference tracks how much organ function is retained: a thymoma preserves enough thymic architecture and immature T cells to keep generating an aberrant autoimmune response, whereas a carcinoma has abandoned thymic organization entirely. B is wrong because thymic carcinoma is only 5% of thymic epithelial neoplasms, and it is usually squamous cell carcinoma among more than ten subtypes. C contradicts its 18 month median survival, and E misclassifies a frankly malignant tumor.

182A thymoma is found to extend through its capsule into surrounding mediastinal fat and pleura at multiple sites.Which prognosis is expected?

  • AClinically benign behavior with no risk of recurrence
  • BGreater than 90% five-year survival
  • CA median survival of 18 months
  • DLess than 50% five-year survival
  • EPrognosis identical to a non-invasive thymoma
Answer

D

Thymomas are graded by invasion rather than by cytology. A non-invasive thymoma is cytologically benign and clinically benign. An invasive thymoma shows extension through the surrounding capsule, and outcome depends on extent: minimally invasive tumors have greater than 90% five-year survival, while extensively invasive tumors have less than 50%. Involvement of multiple sites beyond the capsule describes the extensive category, so B understates the risk and A and E ignore the invasion entirely. C is the 18 month median survival of thymic carcinoma, a different and more aggressive entity accounting for 5% of thymic epithelial neoplasms.